A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clonidine. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Diarrhea
Dry mouth
Photophobia
Bruising
The Correct Answer is B
- A is incorrect because diarrhea is not an adverse effect of clonidine, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as infection, inflammation, or food intolerance.
- B is correct because dry mouth is a common adverse effect of clonidine, which is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that reduces sympathetic nervous system activity.
- C is incorrect because photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is not an adverse effect of clonidine, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as migraine, eye injury, or infection.
- D is incorrect because bruising, or bleeding under the skin, is not an adverse effect of clonidine, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as coagulation disorders, vitamin deficiency, or trauma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination is recommended for adolescents and young adults to prevent HPV-related cancers and diseases. However, in the context of older adults, especially those who are not previously vaccinated, the priority shifts to other immunizations that are more relevant to their age group.
Choice B rationale:
Rotavirus vaccination is administered to infants to protect against rotavirus infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration. It is not a priority immunization for older adults. Older adults are at higher risk for certain diseases, and their immunization focus should be on vaccines that prevent those specific conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccination is essential for children and adults, especially for those who have not received a complete series of vaccinations. However, the question specifies older adults, and DTaP is typically administered to children. While it is crucial for healthcare providers and family members to stay up-to-date with their vaccinations, other immunizations are more pertinent for older adults.
Choice D rationale:
Herpes zoster vaccination (shingles vaccine) is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older. Herpes zoster is a painful rash caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Older adults are at higher risk of developing shingles, and vaccination can reduce the likelihood of the disease and its complications. Therefore, the nurse should recommend the herpes zoster vaccine to the group of older adults as it aligns with their age and addresses a specific health risk they face.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
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