A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and is receiving therapy with unfractionated heparin. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the therapy is effective?
PT 12 seconds.
aPTT 75 seconds.
INR 1.1.
Platelets 200,000/mm².
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
Choice A rationale:
Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma. Improvement in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 85% above their personal best indicates effective bronchodilation and better asthma control.
Choice B rationale:
ABGs showing a pH level of 7.32 are not indicative of the effectiveness of salmeterol. ABG values assess the client's acid-base balance and gas exchange, but they do not directly reflect the action of the medication.
Choice C rationale:
A decrease in forced expiratory volume after treatment with medication indicates a lack of response to the therapy, not an effective outcome. It suggests the medication is not adequately controlling the client's asthma symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Wheezing limited to expiration is not a clear indicator of medication effectiveness. Wheezing can be present in various respiratory conditions and is not solely associated with asthma control. Exhibit. The correct answer is choice B: Increase the rate of the infusion by 160 units/hr.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer: A. Administer furosemide.
Rationales
A. Administer furosemide.
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, helps reduce fluid overload by promoting urinary excretion of sodium and water. In a client with cirrhosis and ascites, it decreases abdominal distention, eases breathing by reducing pressure on the diaphragm, and prevents complications related to severe fluid accumulation.
B. Weigh the client weekly.
Weekly weights would not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with ascites, since fluid retention can change rapidly within hours or days. Daily weights are necessary to detect subtle increases in fluid status and to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment.
C. Offer the client a high-sodium diet.
A high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and ascites, as sodium promotes water retention. Instead, a low-sodium diet is indicated to limit further fluid buildup in the peritoneal cavity.
D. Administer heparin.
Heparin is not a standard intervention for cirrhosis with ascites. Because the diseased liver produces fewer clotting factors, clients are already at risk for bleeding, and anticoagulant therapy would heighten this risk without addressing the underlying problem of fluid accumulation.
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