A nurse is caring for a client who has a ventricular dysrhythmia and a new prescription for amiodarone.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Schedule the client for a hearing screening twice per year.

Remind the client to report an increase in appetite.

Instruct the client to have liver enzyme testing periodically.

Monitor the client for the development of manic behavior.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Amiodarone is known to cause various adverse effects, but ototoxicity leading to hearing impairment is not a commonly reported or significant side effect. The primary concerns with amiodarone involve pulmonary, thyroid, hepatic, and ocular toxicities. Therefore, routine hearing screenings are not a standard intervention in the care plan for clients on amiodarone.

Choice B rationale

An increase in appetite is not a recognized or common adverse effect associated with amiodarone. Amiodarone can cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and anorexia, but an increased appetite is not typically observed. Monitoring for such a symptom would not be a priority in the client's plan of care.

Choice C rationale

Amiodarone is extensively metabolized by the liver and is known to cause hepatotoxicity, ranging from asymptomatic transaminase elevation to severe hepatitis and cirrhosis. Therefore, periodic monitoring of liver enzyme levels (e.g., AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase) is crucial to detect early signs of liver injury and adjust treatment if necessary. Normal AST levels are typically 10-40 U/L, and ALT levels are 7-56 U/L.

Choice D rationale

While some medications can cause psychiatric disturbances, manic behavior is not a commonly reported or characteristic adverse effect of amiodarone. The central nervous system effects of amiodarone are more likely to include peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, and tremors. Monitoring for manic behavior is not a standard intervention for clients on amiodarone therapy.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering half the dose now and the other half in 30 minutes is an inappropriate action for a beta-blocker like atenolol when the heart rate is already low. This approach would still lead to a further reduction in heart rate, potentially causing symptomatic bradycardia or other adverse cardiovascular events, and is not a standard medication administration protocol.

Choice B rationale

Atenolol is a beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and blood pressure. A normal apical heart rate typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats/min. A heart rate of 61/min, although within the normal range, is on the lower end, especially for a client receiving a beta-blocker. Administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, leading to symptomatic bradycardia or other adverse effects. Therefore, withholding the medication and contacting the provider is the safest action to assess the client's tolerance and determine if a dose adjustment is necessary.

Choice C rationale

Administering the prescribed dose when the client's apical heart rate is 61/min is generally contraindicated for a beta-blocker like atenolol. Beta-blockers work by decreasing heart rate. Giving the medication could cause the heart rate to fall below acceptable limits (e.g., less than 60 beats/min), potentially leading to dizziness, syncope, or cardiac arrest, necessitating careful clinical judgment.

Choice D rationale

Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats/min) by blocking the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors, thereby increasing heart rate. While atropine can be used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, preparing to administer it *before* giving atenolol, especially when the heart rate is 61/min and the client is not yet bradycardic, is premature and not indicated.

A. Administer the medication at bedtime. B. Avoid administering the medication with antacids. C. Administer the medication with food. D. Crush the medication prior to administration.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering diclofenac at bedtime does not specifically mitigate its gastrointestinal side effects. NSAIDs like diclofenac can cause gastric irritation and ulceration by inhibiting cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1), which produces prostaglandins essential for gastric mucosal protection. Time of administration is less critical than co-administration with food or protective agents.

Choice B rationale

Antacids can interfere with the absorption of some medications, but specifically for diclofenac, avoiding concomitant administration is not a standard recommendation to mitigate adverse effects. In fact, antacids can sometimes be used to alleviate gastric distress associated with NSAIDs, although they do not prevent direct mucosal damage.

Choice C rationale

Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the gastric mucosa, potentially causing dyspepsia, nausea, and ulceration. Administering the medication with food or milk helps to buffer the gastric acid and physically protect the stomach lining, thereby reducing the direct irritant effect on the gastrointestinal tract and enhancing tolerability.

Choice D rationale

Diclofenac is typically formulated as an enteric-coated tablet or delayed-release capsule to protect the stomach from irritation and ensure targeted drug release in the small intestine. Crushing the medication would destroy this protective coating, leading to premature drug release in the stomach, increasing gastric irritation, and potentially reducing therapeutic efficacy.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a ventricular dysrhythmia and a new prescription for amiodarone. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a ventricular dysrhythmia and a new prescription for amiodarone.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?