A nurse is caring for a client who has borderline personality disorder (BPD). As part of the client's plan of care, the nurse reviews the day's schedule with the client each morning.
As the nurse begins to review the schedule with the client, the client says, "Why don't you shut up already? I can read it myself, you know!" Which of the following responses should the nurse give the client?
"Fine.
"I don't like it when you address me with that tone of voice."
"We do this every day.
"I know you can, but are you going to read it or not?" .
re is the schedule, and I will expect you to be on time to your therapies."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Avoids addressing the client's behavior: This response does not directly address the client's disrespectful tone of voice. It simply gives the client the schedule and expects them to comply. This could reinforce the client's belief that they can act out without consequences.
Misses an opportunity to set boundaries: Setting boundaries is essential when working with clients with BPD. This response does not establish a clear boundary regarding acceptable communication.
Does not promote therapeutic communication: This response does not encourage the client to share their feelings or explore the reasons behind their outburst. It shuts down communication rather than opening it up.
Choice B rationale:
Directly addresses the inappropriate behavior: This response assertively communicates to the client that their tone of voice is unacceptable. It sets a clear boundary regarding respectful communication.
Models appropriate communication: The nurse models respectful communication by using a calm and assertive tone of voice. This can help the client learn to communicate more effectively.
Promotes self-awareness: This response may prompt the client to reflect on their behavior and the impact it has on others. It can help them develop better self-awareness and emotional regulation skills.
Choice C rationale:
Focuses on the nurse's feelings: This response shifts the focus away from the client's behavior and onto the nurse's feelings. It can make the client feel defensive and less likely to engage in productive communication.
May escalate the situation: Asking "why" s can sometimes put clients on the defensive and lead to further conflict. It's generally more helpful to focus on the present behavior and its impact.
Choice D rationale:
Condescending and challenging: This response comes across as condescending and challenging. It's likely to make the client feel defensive and resentful.
Not therapeutic: This response does not promote a sense of trust or rapport between the nurse and the client. It's unlikely to lead to productive communication or behavior change.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The adverse effect the nurse should report to the provider is A. Sweating and fever.
This combination of symptoms is a key indicator of Serotonin Syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that, while rare with buspirone alone, can occur, particularly if the client is taking other medications that increase serotonin (like SSRIs or MAOIs).
The nurse should report these signs immediately because:
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Sweating (Diaphoresis) and High Fever (Hyperthermia) are core components of the triad of symptoms for Serotonin Syndrome (autonomic instability).
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Serotonin Syndrome also involves changes in mental status (e.g., confusion, hallucinations, which is option D) and neuromuscular hyperactivity (e.g., muscle rigidity, tremors).
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This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and renal failure.
In comparison:
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C. Decreased appetite is a common, generally mild, and manageable side effect.
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D. Hallucinations are a serious central nervous system side effect, but when presented alongside the life-threatening systemic signs of Serotonin Syndrome (A), option A represents the more urgent and dangerous adverse reaction.
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B. Discolored urine is not a standard adverse effect and would need investigation, but is not as acutely critical as signs of Serotonin Syndrome.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Having the client join a therapy group immediately upon admission might not be the most therapeutic action. The client is experiencing panic-level anxiety, which is characterized by a heightened state of arousal and fear. Introducing the client to a group setting at this time could potentially increase their anxiety levels due to the unfamiliar environment and people.
Choice B rationale: Suggesting that the client rest in bed might seem like a good idea, as rest can help reduce stress and anxiety. However, this action alone might not be the most therapeutic for a client experiencing panic-level anxiety. The client might continue to experience high levels of anxiety while alone in their room, and without the presence of a healthcare professional, they might not have the necessary support to manage their anxiety.
Choice C rationale: Remaining with the client for a while is the most therapeutic action at this time. The presence of the nurse can provide a sense of safety and security for the client, which can help reduce their anxiety levels. The nurse can also use this time to assess the client’s anxiety levels, provide reassurance, and implement appropriate interventions to help manage the client’s anxiety.
Choice D rationale: Medicating the client with a sedative might help reduce the client’s anxiety levels, but it should not be the first action taken. Medication should be considered as part of a comprehensive treatment plan that includes non-pharmacological interventions, such as providing a safe and supportive environment, using therapeutic communication, and teaching the client coping strategies.
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