A nurse is caring for a client who has fibrocystic breasts. The client asks the nurse, "What will happen to my fibrocystic breast changes after menopause?" Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the nurse?

"You will be at increased risk of breast cancer."

"The manifestations often get worse after menopause."

"Menopause won't have any effect on the manifestations."

"The manifestations usually go away after menopause."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason:
Telling a client that they will be at an increased risk of breast cancer due to fibrocystic breast changes would be incorrect. Fibrocystic breast changes are not directly linked to an increased risk of breast cancer. While the presence of complex fibrocystic changes may slightly elevate the risk, fibrocystic breasts themselves are a common and benign condition.

Choice B reason:
It is not accurate to say that the manifestations of fibrocystic breasts often get worse after menopause. In fact, fibrocystic changes are related to hormone levels, and most women experience relief from these symptoms after menopause when hormone levels decline.

Choice C reason:
Stating that menopause won't have any effect on the manifestations is also incorrect. Menopause typically leads to a decrease in hormone levels, which are associated with fibrocystic breast changes. Therefore, most women see an improvement in their symptoms after menopause.

Choice D reason:
The most appropriate response is that the manifestations usually go away after menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are linked to hormonal fluctuations, and after menopause, when these fluctuations cease, the symptoms of fibrocystic breasts typically resolve.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

The inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder is a classic sign of a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is responsible for stabilizing the shoulder joint and aiding in various movements, including abduction. When there is a tear or significant weakness in the rotator cuff muscles, especially the supraspinatus muscle, the patient may be unable to lift the arm away from the body or may experience pain while doing so.

Choice B reason:

A negative drop arm test would actually indicate that there is no rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by asking the patient to fully abduct the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the patient can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the patient cannot control the descent of the arm, would suggest a rotator cuff tear.

Choice C reason:

While an alteration in the contour of the joint may indicate some form of shoulder pathology, it is not specific to a rotator cuff injury. Changes in the contour could be due to various conditions, including dislocation, arthritis, or other musculoskeletal disorders.

Choice D reason:

A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, not rotator cuff injuries. It is performed by tapping over the course of a nerve to elicit a tingling sensation or pain in the distribution of the nerve. This sign is commonly associated with conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome.

A. The client should receive an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent. B. The client should receive a diet with increased protein. C. The client has an increased risk of infection. D. The client has an increased risk for bleeding.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) is indicated for anemia due to chemotherapy¹. However, the client's hemoglobin (Hgb) level is 12.1 g/dL, which is within the normal range (normal: 12-15.5 g/dL for women). Therefore, administering an ESA is not indicated based on the Hgb level provided.

Choice B reason: A diet with increased protein can be beneficial for patients undergoing chemotherapy as it helps in tissue repair and immune system function. However, the client's albumin level is 4.5 g/dL, which falls within the normal range (normal: 3.4-5.4 g/dL), suggesting adequate protein intake. Thus, there is no indication that the client requires an increased protein diet based on the albumin level provided.

Choice C reason: The client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 1,400/mm³, which is below the normal range (normal: 4,500-11,000/mm³). This condition, known as leukopenia, significantly increases the risk of infection³. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for signs of infection and implementing infection control measures.

Choice D reason: The client's platelet count is 170,000/mm³, which is within the normal range (normal: 150,000-450,000/mm³). Although cisplatin can cause thrombocytopenia, the current platelet count does not indicate an increased risk for bleeding⁴. Therefore, this choice is not correct based on the platelet count provided.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has fibrocystic breasts. The client asks the nurse, "What will happen to my fibrocystic breast changes after menopause?" Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a rotator cuff injury?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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