A nurse is caring for a client who has major depressive disorder. After discussing the treatment with his partner, the client verbally agrees to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) but will not sign the consent form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Request that the client's partner sign the consent form.
Inform the client about the risks of refusing ECT.
Cancel the scheduled ECT procedure.
Proceed with preparation for ECT based on implied consent.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Request that the client's partner sign the consent form:
While involving the client's partner might offer emotional support and facilitate communication, legal and ethical guidelines typically require the informed consent of the individual undergoing the procedure. Having a partner sign the form without the client's explicit consent would not adhere to these standards.
B. Inform the client about the risks of refusing ECT:
Educating the client about the potential risks and benefits of ECT, as well as discussing alternative treatments, is a crucial step in the informed consent process. However, merely informing the client does not replace the need for the client to provide explicit, written consent for the procedure to be performed legally and ethically.
C. Cancel the scheduled ECT procedure:
This is the correct action. Without the client's signed consent, the procedure cannot proceed. Canceling the ECT procedure respects the client's autonomy and adheres to legal and ethical standards surrounding informed consent. The healthcare team should continue to engage with the client, addressing any concerns and questions, to obtain their informed and voluntary consent before rescheduling the procedure if the client chooses to proceed.
D. Proceed with preparation for ECT based on implied consent:
Implied consent is not sufficient for significant medical procedures such as ECT. Implied consent implies agreement based on actions or behavior rather than explicit, informed agreement. For procedures like ECT, it is essential to have documented, explicit, and voluntary consent from the client before proceeding. Relying solely on implied consent would not meet the ethical and legal requirements for informed consent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Implement measures to prevent intentional self-inflicted injury:
This choice is the priority. Individuals with borderline personality disorder are at an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal behaviors. Implementing measures to prevent intentional self-inflicted injury, such as close monitoring, removing potentially harmful objects, and creating a safe environment, is crucial to ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
B. Discuss the appropriate use of assertive behavior with the client:
Teaching assertive behavior is an important aspect of therapy for individuals with borderline personality disorder. Learning to express emotions and needs in a healthy, assertive manner can improve their interpersonal skills and relationships. However, this choice is secondary to ensuring the client's safety. Safety concerns need to be addressed before moving on to other therapeutic interventions.
C. Encourage the client to attend weekly support group meetings:
Support group meetings can provide valuable social support and a sense of belonging for individuals with borderline personality disorder. Being part of a supportive community can offer understanding and coping strategies. While this is a beneficial intervention, it is not the priority. Safety concerns and addressing self-harm risk take precedence.
D. Assist the client to maintain awareness of her thoughts and feelings:
Developing self-awareness and emotional regulation skills is essential in managing borderline personality disorder. Techniques such as mindfulness and dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) can help individuals become more aware of their thoughts and emotions. While important for long-term management, this intervention is not the priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Safety should always be the first focus of care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Liraglutide 0.6 mg subcutaneously daily:
Liraglutide is a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and obesity. It works by regulating blood sugar levels and reducing appetite. It has no direct relevance to the treatment of schizophrenia or psychosis. Schizophrenia is a mental health disorder, and antipsychotic medications are typically used to manage its symptoms.
B. Selegiline 6 mg transdermal patch daily:
Selegiline is primarily used to treat Parkinson's disease by enhancing the effects of dopamine in the brain. It is not indicated for schizophrenia or psychosis. While dopamine dysregulation is involved in both Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia, the mechanisms and treatments are different. Antipsychotic medications, not selegiline, are used to manage psychosis in schizophrenia.
C. Aripiprazole 400 mg IM every 4 weeks:
This is the correct choice. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. The intramuscular (IM) formulation provides extended release, making it suitable for clients who may have difficulty adhering to daily oral medications. It helps manage psychosis, a common symptom of schizophrenia.
D. Lithium 600 mg PO three times per day:
Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by preventing or reducing the intensity of manic episodes. It is not a first-line treatment for schizophrenia or psychosis. Antipsychotic medications are the primary choice for managing the symptoms of psychosis in schizophrenia. Lithium is not typically used to address the hallucinations and delusions associated with schizophrenia.
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