A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Position the client in a knee-chest position.

Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's.

Give terbutaline subcutaneously.

Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.

Choice A rationale:

Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.

Choice B rationale:

Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.

Choice C rationale:

Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.

Choice D rationale:

Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A postpartum temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is within the normal range. Mild temperature elevations can be expected in the immediate postpartum period without indicating infection.

Choice B rationale:

Uterine tenderness is a common finding in endometritis, which is an inflammation or infection of the inner lining of the uterus. The condition can cause pelvic pain and uterine tenderness.

Choice C rationale:

A white blood cell (WBC) count of 9,000/mm³ falls within the normal range for a postpartum client. In endometritis, an elevated WBC count would be expected due to the infection.

Choice D rationale:

Scant lochia (minimal vaginal discharge after childbirth) is a normal finding in the postpartum period and is not associated with endometritis. In endometritis, the lochia may be increased and foul-smelling.

A. Urine output 20 mL/hr. B. Hypertension. C. Hyperglycemia. D. Respiratory rate 16/min.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.

Choice B rationale:

Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.

Choice C rationale:

Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.

Choice D rationale:

A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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