A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
History of thrombophlebitis
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
History of toxic shock syndrome
The Correct Answer is D
A. A history of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) does not contraindicate the use of a cervical cap. MRSA is an infection issue, but the cervical cap does not pose a significant risk for MRSA-related complications.
B. A history of thrombophlebitis is not a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. Thrombophlebitis concerns are generally associated with hormonal contraceptives rather than barrier methods like cervical caps.
C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for using a cervical cap. Individuals with Type 1 diabetes can use barrier methods for contraception, though they should manage their condition carefully for overall health.
D. A history of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for using a cervical cap. TSS is a severe, potentially life-threatening condition often associated with the use of barrier methods like tampons or cervical caps, which can increase the risk of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Blood pressure 156/80 mm Hg is incorrect. While this blood pressure reading is elevated, hypertension is not a typical immediate sign of postpartum hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is more commonly associated with hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
B. Temperature 38.3° C (101° F) is incorrect. A mild fever may be common in the first 24 hours postpartum due to normal inflammatory responses. It is not specifically indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, though a persistent fever could indicate an infection.
C. Respiratory rate 32/min is correct. An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of hypovolemia (due to significant blood loss), which may occur with postpartum hemorrhage. The body compensates for decreased blood volume by increasing the respiratory rate.
D. Apical pulse 66/min is incorrect. A heart rate of 66/min is within normal limits and would not be indicative of postpartum hemorrhage. In fact, a tachycardic (elevated) heart rate is more concerning in the case of hemorrhage as the body tries to compensate for blood loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Uterine contractions lasting 30 to 45 seconds
Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 30 to 45 seconds are within the expected range for the latent phase of labor. This duration indicates that contractions are occurring but are not too frequent or too prolonged, which is typical for this stage of labor.
B. Uterine contractions every 6 min
Rationale: Contractions every 6 minutes are also typical for the latent phase of labor, where contractions are still becoming more frequent as labor progresses. This frequency does not suggest fetal distress or a significant risk to the fetus.
C. Recurrent variable deceleration of the FHR
Rationale: Recurrent variable decelerations in fetal heart rate (FHR) indicate that the fetus might be experiencing umbilical cord compression. This finding suggests a risk to the fetus, as it can be associated with reduced oxygenation and may require intervention to manage labor and optimize fetal well-being.
D. Moderate variability of the FHR
Rationale: Moderate variability in FHR is an indication of a well-oxygenated fetus and a healthy autonomic nervous system. This is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being rather than a risk.
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