A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations.
Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol.
Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test.
Administer betamethasone IM.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Avoiding sterile vaginal examinations is not the appropriate action for managing uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Vaginal examinations may be necessary to assess the degree of cervical dilation and to identify potential causes of bleeding.
B. Anticipating a prescription for misoprostol is appropriate for managing uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that helps to promote uterine contractions and control bleeding.
C. Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test is not the priority action in this situation. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to estimate the amount of fetal-maternal hemorrhage in Rh-negative mothers.
D. Administering betamethasone IM is not indicated for the management of uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung maturity when preterm birth is anticipated.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Inserting a urinary catheter is an invasive procedure and should not be the first action taken to address bladder distention following a vaginal birth. It should only be considered if the client is unable to void voluntarily.
B. Assisting the client to the bathroom is the initial intervention to attempt to relieve bladder distention. Encouraging the client to void in a comfortable and familiar environment may stimulate urination and help alleviate the distention.
C. Offering the client a sitz bath may provide comfort and promote perineal healing but is not the first intervention for bladder distention.
D. Pouring warm water over the client's perineum may also provide comfort but does not directly address bladder distention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Massaging the client's fundus is not indicated for hypotension following epidural anesthesia.
Fundal massage is typically performed to prevent or manage uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.
B. Turning the client to a side-lying position is a recommended intervention for hypotension following epidural anesthesia. This position helps improve venous return to the heart and can help alleviate hypotension by reducing aortocaval compression.
C. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula may be indicated if the client is experiencing respiratory distress, but it is not the primary intervention for hypotension.
D. Assisting the client to empty their bladder may be appropriate to relieve urinary retention but is not the priority intervention for hypotension.
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