A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

The client has a wound dressing saturated with sanguinous drainage after it was reinforced.

The client has an oxygen saturation level of 96% after oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula was applied.

The client reports a pain level of 2 on a 0 to 10 scale after administration of pain medication.

The client has a urine output of 50 mL/hr after removal of the indwelling urinary catheter.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Saturated sanguinous drainage post-reinforcement signals excessive bleeding, potentially indicating hemorrhage or poor wound healing. Two hours postoperative, this suggests vascular injury or coagulopathy, requiring urgent provider notification to prevent hypovolemia, infection, or further complications in the surgical site.
Choice B reason: Oxygen saturation of 96% on 2 L/min nasal cannula is normal (95-100%), indicating stable respiratory status. This does not require reporting, as it reflects effective oxygenation post-surgery, with oxygen therapy appropriately supporting recovery without signs of respiratory distress.
Choice C reason: A pain level of 2/10 post-medication indicates effective pain control, not warranting immediate reporting. Postoperative pain management targets comfort (<4/10), and this level suggests successful analgesia, with no evidence of complications like nerve injury requiring provider intervention.
Choice D reason: Urine output of 50 mL/hr is normal (>30 mL/hr) post-catheter removal, indicating adequate renal perfusion. This does not require reporting, as it reflects normal kidney function and hydration status in the early postoperative period, absent other concerning symptoms.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dehydration is not directly associated with gastroesophageal reflux, which involves gastric acid backflow. Dehydration affects fluid balance, not reflux mechanisms, so this statement is inaccurate and irrelevant to preterm contractions, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit; rather, it may elevate these due to hemoconcentration. This statement reverses the relationship, making it factually incorrect and unrelated to preterm labor risks.
Choice C reason: Dehydration can increase preterm labor risk by reducing uterine blood flow and triggering contractions via oxytocin release. This evidence-based link supports hydration as a preventive measure, making it the correct statement for teaching in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Dehydration is treated with fluid replacement, not calcium supplements, which address bone health or specific deficiencies. This treatment is irrelevant to dehydration or preterm labor, making it an incorrect and inappropriate recommendation.

A. Take your diuretic medication with your evening meal. B. Plan to urinate every 3 hours while you are awake. C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day. D. Perform Kegel exercises once daily.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Taking diuretics with the evening meal increases nighttime urination, worsening urge incontinence by stimulating bladder activity during sleep. Diuretics should be taken earlier (e.g., morning) to align with daytime voiding schedules, reducing urgency episodes. This instruction is counterproductive for bladder retraining, making it inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Planning to urinate every 3 hours while awake establishes a scheduled voiding regimen, a key component of bladder retraining. This helps condition the bladder to delay urgency, reducing involuntary contractions and improving control. It aligns with evidence-based strategies for managing urge incontinence, making it the correct instruction.
Choice C reason: Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day risks dehydration and concentrated urine, which can irritate the bladder and worsen urge incontinence. Adequate hydration (2-3 L/day) supports bladder health and retraining by maintaining normal urine volume, making this instruction harmful and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Performing Kegel exercises once daily is insufficient for effective bladder retraining. Multiple daily sets (e.g., 3-4 times) strengthen pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control. This frequency is too low to achieve therapeutic benefits for urge incontinence, making it less effective than scheduled voiding.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is initiating bladder retraining for a client who has urge urinary incontinence. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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