A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 weeks postpartum.
The client tells the nurse, "I feel really down and sad lately.
I have no energy and I feel like I'm going to cry.”. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Arrange for counseling to help the client cope with the stress of being a parent.
Request a prescription for an antidepressant medication.
Reinforce teaching about ways to increase rest and sleep.
Use a postpartum depression-screening tool with the client.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice d. Use a postpartum depression-screening tool with the client.
Choice A rationale:
Arranging for counseling is important for long-term support, but the first step is to accurately assess the client’s condition using a screening tool.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting a prescription for an antidepressant may be necessary, but it should follow a proper assessment and diagnosis.
Choice C rationale:
Reinforcing teaching about rest and sleep is beneficial, but it does not address the immediate need to assess the severity of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Using a postpartum depression-screening tool is the first step to identify the severity of the client’s symptoms and determine the appropriate course of action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but it can lead to respiratory depression and toxicity when levels become too high. Administering calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of magnesium toxicity by competing for binding sites and restoring neuromuscular function. This is the appropriate treatment to address the client's symptoms of respiratory depression, which are suggestive of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity. It does not have any impact on magnesium levels or their associated toxic effects.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, such as morphine or fentanyl. It is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering naloxone would not address the client's symptoms or the underlying cause of respiratory depressionzz.
Choice D rationale:
Protamine sulfate is an antidote used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not magnesium sulfate. It is not effective in treating magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering protamine sulfate would not be the appropriate intervention for this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
As mentioned in the previous question, Rho(D) immune globulin should be administered to Rh-negative pregnant clients when the newborn is Rh positive. This is essential to prevent Rh sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. So, if the client is Rh negative and the newborn is Rh positive, the nurse should administer Rho(D) immune globulin to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer.
Choice B rationale:
If both the client and the newborn are Rh positive, there is no risk of Rh incompatibility, and Rho(D) immune globulin administration is not necessary. Choice B is not the correct answer.
Choice C rationale:
When both the client and the newborn are Rh negative, there is no risk of Rh incompatibility, and therefore, Rho(D) immune globulin administration is not required. Choice C is not the correct answer.
Choice D rationale:
If the client is Rh positive and the newborn is Rh negative, there is no risk of Rh incompatibility, and Rho(D) immune globulin administration is not necessary in this scenario. Choice D is not the correct answer.
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