A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 days postpartum following a cesarean birth
For each potential assessment finding, click to specify if the assessment finding is consistent with mastitis or endometritis. Each finding may support more than 1 disease process
Painful, tender breast
Temperature
Chills
Foul-smelling lochia
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}
Mastitis: A, B, C
Endometritis: B, C, D
Rationale:
A. This finding is consistent with mastitis. Mastitis is characterized by inflammation of the breast tissue, often presenting with pain, tenderness, warmth, and redness in the affected breast.
B. This finding can be indicative of both mastitis and endometritis. A fever, as indicated by an elevated temperature (38.8°C or 101.9°F), is a common symptom of both mastitis and endometritis. It suggests an inflammatory response or infection in the body.
C. This finding is also consistent with both mastitis and endometritis. Chills often accompany fever and can be a sign of systemic infection or inflammation.
D. This finding is more indicative of endometritis. Endometritis involves infection or inflammation of the uterine lining, which can result in foul-smelling lochia. Foul- smelling lochia may indicate the presence of infection within the uterus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Documenting the transfusion reaction in the medical record is essential for accurate documentation and communication among the healthcare team.
B. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously is not indicated for febrile transfusion reactions. It is instead indicated for anaphylaxis.
C. Infusing lactated Ringer's IV may be indicated for managing transfusion reactions, but the specific treatment depends on the type and severity of the reaction. It's essential to consult with the healthcare provider for appropriate interventions.
D. Placing the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding is a routine procedure for disposing of blood products but is not the immediate priority when managing a transfusion reaction.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering vancomycin over a longer infusion time, such as 60 minutes, can help reduce the risk of adverse reactions, such as red man syndrome or nephrotoxicity. Slower infusion rates allow for better tolerance of the medication.
B. Vancomycin should be diluted appropriately before administration to reduce the risk of infusion-related reactions.
C. Lidocaine is not typically used prior to vancomycin administration. The use of lidocaine would be more relevant for local anesthesia, not for systemic medication administration like vancomycin.
D. Trough levels are typically obtained just before the next dose of vancomycin is due, not immediately after the infusion.
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