A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Plan to take this medication with food."
"Plan to take this medication with antacids."
"Limit foods that contain vitamin D while taking this medication."
"Limit foods that contain folic acid while taking this medication."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
"Plan to take this medication with food." Is the correct statement. When providing instructions to an older adult client who has a seizure disorder and is prescribed phenytoin (an antiepileptic or anticonvulsant medication), the nurse should advise the client to take the medication with food. Phenytoin can cause gastrointestinal irritation, and taking it with food can help minimize this side effect.
Choice B reason:
"Plan to take this medication with antacids. “is not the appropriate instruction. Phenytoin should not be taken with antacids. Antacids can reduce the absorption of phenytoin, leading to decreased effectiveness of the medication. If antacids are needed for other reasons, they should be taken at least 2 hours before or after taking phenytoin.
Choice C reason:
"Limit foods that contain vitamin D while taking this medication. “This is not inappropriate instruction. There is no specific requirement to limit foods containing vitamin D while taking phenytoin. However, phenytoin may decrease the absorption of vitamin D, which could potentially affect the client's vitamin D levels. Therefore, it is essential for the client to have regular check-ups and possibly discuss the need for vitamin D supplementation with their healthcare provider.
Choice D reason:
"Limit foods that contain folic acid while taking this medication. “This is not the correct statement. Phenytoin can interfere with the absorption of folic acid (a B-vitamin). Long-term use of phenytoin may lead to folic acid deficiency. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to consume foods rich in folic acid and discuss the potential need for folic acid supplementation with their healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound. This is because a licensed practical nurse (LPN) can perform tasks that require technical skills and have predictable outcomes, such as dressing changes. A sterile dressing change is also within the scope of practice of an LPN.
Choice A is wrong because complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires assessment, evaluation and critical thinking, which are beyond the scope of practice of an LPN. Discharge teaching is the responsibility of a registered nurse (RN) who can provide education and counseling to clients and families.
Choice B is wrong because completing the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke requires assessment and interpretation of neurological status, which are complex and unpredictable tasks that only an RN can perform. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness of a client based on eye opening, verbal response and motor response. A client who has an evolving stroke may have changes in their neurological status that require frequent monitoring and intervention by an RN.
Choice D is wrong because performing an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery requires comprehensive data collection, analysis and synthesis, which are advanced skills that only an RN can perform. An admission assessment involves obtaining a complete health history, performing a physical examination, identifying client needs and problems, and developing a plan of care.
A client who is scheduled for surgery may have complex and unpredictable needs that require specialized knowledge and judgment by an RN.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. BP 150/92 mm Hg:
- This blood pressure reading is elevated and not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate. In the context of preeclampsia, the goal is usually to lower blood pressure to prevent complications.
B. Pulse rate 100/min:
- The pulse rate of 100/min is not a specific therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate. However, magnesium sulfate may cause a decrease in heart rate, so monitoring for bradycardia would be important.
C. Flushed face:
- A flushed face is not a specific therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate. Facial flushing may be associated with other factors, but it is not a primary consideration when monitoring the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate in the context of preeclampsia.
D. Negative clonus:
- Negative clonus is the correct therapeutic effect to monitor. Clonus refers to a series of involuntary, rhythmic, and repetitive muscle contractions and relaxations. In the context of magnesium sulfate administration for preeclampsia, negative clonus (the absence of abnormal reflexes) is a sign that the magnesium levels are within the therapeutic range, helping to prevent seizures.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
