A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Choice A reason:
Reducing exercise to 3 days a week may not be sufficient for managing gestational diabetes. Regular physical activity is an important part of diabetes management because it helps lower blood sugar levels and can improve insulin sensitivity. The American Diabetes Association recommends that pregnant women with gestational diabetes engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week. This can be distributed over at least three days per week, with no more than two consecutive days without exercise.

Choice B reason:
The statement that the client knows she is at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes is accurate. Women with gestational diabetes have a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. Therefore, they should be monitored for diabetes postpartum and in the years following the birth.

Choice C reason:
Taking glyburide, an oral hypoglycemic agent, is a common treatment for gestational diabetes when diet and exercise are not enough to control blood sugar levels. It is usually taken before breakfast to help control blood sugar levels throughout the day.

Choice D reason:
The statement about limiting carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake indicates a need for further teaching. While it is important to monitor carbohydrate intake, there is no one-size-fits-all recommendation for the percentage of calories that should come from carbohydrates. Dietary needs can vary based on individual factors, and it is generally recommended to follow a balanced diet with carbohydrates coming from whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and legumes. The client should work with a dietitian to determine the appropriate amount of carbohydrates for her specific needs.

Choice A reason:

Precipitous labor is characterized by a labor that progresses rapidly and ends within three hours of its onset. It is not typically associated with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This condition is more likely to present with intense, frequent contractions and a rapid change in cervical dilation. Therefore, precipitous labor is not the correct answer in this scenario.

Choice B reason:

Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterus before delivery. It can cause significant maternal and fetal complications. The classic presentation includes painful bleeding, uterine tenderness, and contractions. Given that the scenario describes painless bleeding, abruptio placentae is less likely to be the correct diagnosis.

Choice C reason:

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the cervix partially or completely. The hallmark sign of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, which aligns with the scenario provided. This bleeding can occur spontaneously or be triggered by intercourse or a medical exam. Placenta previa is a serious condition that can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage and warrants immediate medical attention. Based on the information provided, placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis for the client described.

Choice D reason:

Threatened abortion refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, which may indicate a potential miscarriage. Since the client is at 36 weeks gestation, threatened abortion is not a relevant diagnosis for late-term bleeding. Additionally, threatened abortion is often accompanied by abdominal cramping, which is not mentioned in the scenario.