A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
Hydralazine
Nifedipine
Labetalol
Methyldopa
The Correct Answer is C
Labetalol is an antihypertensive drug that can lower blood pressure in pregnant women with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is not recommended as a first-line treatment for preeclampsia due to its potential adverse effects on maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is not licensed for use in pregnancy and may interact with magnesium sulfate, which is an anticonvulsant medication used to prevent or treat seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because methyldopa is not effective for acute blood pressure control and may cause adverse effects such as depression, sedation, and hemolytic anemia.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Headache unrelieved by analgesics.This is because headache is a common symptom of HELLP syndrome, a rare pregnancy complication that can cause high blood pressure, seizures, stroke or liver rupture.HELLP syndrome is a type of preeclampsia and has similar symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because breast engorgement is a normal postpartum condition that occurs when the breasts are full of milk and become swollen and tender.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Choice B is wrong because lochia rubra for 3 days postpartum is a normal finding that indicates the shedding of the uterine lining after delivery.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Choice D is wrong because perineal discomfort is a common postpartum discomfort that results from the stretching and tearing of the perineal tissues during vaginal delivery.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg, for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, and for liver enzymes are 7 to 56 units per liter for AST and 0 to 35 units per liter for ALT.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
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