A nurse is reviewing the discharge instructions for a client who had severe preeclampsia and delivered her baby at 34 weeks of gestation by cesarean birth.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“I will need to take magnesium sulfate for another week.”
“I will have to monitor my blood pressure at home for a month.”
“I will have to avoid breastfeeding until my condition resolves.”
“I will have to use contraception for at least 6 months.”
The Correct Answer is B
The client will have to monitor her blood pressure at home for a month after delivery because preeclampsia can persist or develop for the first time after delivery. The client should seek medical care if she has signs of postpartum preeclampsia, such as severe headaches, vision changes, severe belly pain, nausea and vomiting.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant medication that is given to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia during labor and usually for 24 hours after delivery.
It is not needed for another week.
Choice C is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in women with preeclampsia. Breastfeeding may even lower the blood pressure and help with bonding.
Choice D is wrong because contraception is not related to preeclampsia. The client should discuss with her healthcare provider about the best contraceptive method for her based on her medical history and preferences.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity because it reverses the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular and cardiovascular systems.
Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest in high doses.
Choice B. Naloxone is wrong because it is the antidote for opioid overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Naloxone blocks the opioid receptors and restores breathing and consciousness.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Flumazenil binds to the benzodiazepine receptors and reverses the sedative and hypnotic effects.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is the antidote for heparin overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Protamine sulfate neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of heparin and prevents bleeding.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 0.75 to 1.25 mmol/L.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hr is an indication of magnesium sulfate toxicity.Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia.Taking too much magnesium can be life-threatening to both mother and child.
Choice B is wrong because
Choice C is wrong because patellar reflex of +2 is normal and not a sign of toxicity.Loss of deep tendon reflexes can occur with magnesium overdose.
Choice D is wrong because serum magnesium level of 4 mEq/L is normal and not a sign of toxicity.Toxic levels are usually above 8 mEq/L.
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