A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had HELLP syndrome and a cesarean birth.

The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings to the provider?

Breast engorgement

Lochia rubra for 3 days postpartum

Headache unrelieved by analgesics

Perineal discomfort

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Headache unrelieved by analgesics. This is because headache is a common symptom of HELLP syndrome, a rare pregnancy complication that can cause high blood pressure, seizures, stroke or liver rupture. HELLP syndrome is a type of preeclampsia and has similar symptoms.

Choice A is wrong because breast engorgement is a normal postpartum condition that occurs when the breasts are full of milk and become swollen and tender.

It is not related to HELLP syndrome.

Choice B is wrong because lochia rubra for 3 days postpartum is a normal finding that indicates the shedding of the uterine lining after delivery.

It is not related to HELLP syndrome.

Choice D is wrong because perineal discomfort is a common postpartum discomfort that results from the stretching and tearing of the perineal tissues during vaginal delivery.

It is not related to HELLP syndrome.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg, for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, and for liver enzymes are 7 to 56 units per liter for AST and 0 to 35 units per liter for ALT.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Magnesium sulfate therapy is used to prevent seizures in women with preeclampsia, a complication of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and organ dysfunction.Seizures are a sign of eclampsia, a severe form of preeclampsia that can be life-threatening.

Therefore, if the therapy is successful, the woman should not have any seizures.

Choice B.Absence of proteinuria is wrong because proteinuria, or excess protein in urine, is a possible sign of preeclampsia, not eclampsia.

Proteinuria may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.

Choice C.Absence of edema is wrong because edema, or swelling, is a common symptom of pregnancy and may not be related to preeclampsia or eclampsia.

Edema may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.

Choice D.Absence of headache is wrong because headache is a symptom of preeclampsia, not eclampsia.

Headache may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 140/90 mm Hg and for protein in urine are below 300 mg per 24 hours.

A. Age over 35 years B. First pregnancy C. Obesity D. Diabetes mellitus E. Multiple gestation

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

The correct answer is choices B, C, D, and E.These are all risk factors for pre-eclampsia according to various sources.

Choice A is wrong because age over 35 years is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia by itself, although it may be associated with other conditions that increase the risk, such as chronic hypertension or diabetes.

Pre-eclampsia is a complication of pregnancy that involves high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and organ damage.It can affect both the mother and the fetus and can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia (seizures), placental abruption, and stillbirth.It is more common in first pregnancies, especially with a new partner, because of the immune response to the foreign fetal antigens.Obesity, diabetes mellitus, and multiple gestation are also risk factors because they increase the metabolic and vascular demands on the placenta and the mother.

Normal ranges for blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy are:

• Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mmHg

• Proteinuria: less than 300 mg/24 hours or less than 30 mg/dL on a random urine sample

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had HELLP syndrome and a cesarean birth. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client with eclampsia. What clinical indicator would suggest that the therapy is successful?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the risk factors for pre-eclampsia. Which of the following should the nurse include? (Select all that apply).

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who has eclampsia. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the therapy is successful?

A nurse is educating a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously about the possible side effects of the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had severe pre-eclampsia and delivered a healthy baby at 34 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client with eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and has a magnesium level of 10 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available as an antidote?

A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for developing preeclampsia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A nurse is monitoring a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate infusion. What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had HELLP syndrome and a cesarean birth.

The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings to the provider?