A nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is being induced with oxytocin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
Contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes
Fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability
Cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50%
Epigastric pain and nausea
The Correct Answer is D
Epigastric pain and nausea. This is because epigastric pain and nausea are signs of severe preeclampsia that indicate liver involvement and possible hepatic rupture.
This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice A is wrong because contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes are normal during labor induction with oxytocin and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50% are normal findings during labor induction and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate overdose.Magnesium sulfate blocks calcium, so calcium gluconate can reverse the effect of an overdose.
The other choices are not antidotes for magnesium sulfate.Choice A, naloxone, is the antidote for narcotics or opioid overdose.Choice B, flumazenil, is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.Choice D, protamine sulfate, is the antidote for heparin overdose.The normal range of magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L, so a level of 10 mg/dL indicates toxicity.
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