A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). The test is nonreactive. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest based on the findings?
Kleihauer-Betke test
Amnioinfusion
Administration of terbutaline
Contraction stress test
The Correct Answer is D
A. Kleihauer-Betke test. This test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage by identifying fetal red blood cells in maternal circulation. It is not related to a nonreactive NST, which indicates the need for further fetal well-being assessment rather than checking for fetal-maternal bleeding.
B. Amnioinfusion. This procedure involves infusing fluid into the amniotic sac to relieve umbilical cord compression or dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid. It is not an appropriate intervention for a nonreactive NST, as it does not assess fetal oxygenation or reactivity.
C. Administration of terbutaline. Terbutaline is a tocolytic used to relax the uterus and prevent preterm labor. It is not indicated for a nonreactive NST, as the concern in this scenario is fetal well-being rather than uterine activity.
D. Contraction stress test. A nonreactive NST means that the fetal heart rate does not demonstrate adequate accelerations, which can indicate potential fetal hypoxia. A contraction stress test is performed next to evaluate how the fetal heart rate responds to contractions, helping determine if the fetus can tolerate labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Confusion can occur with electrolyte imbalances, including hyperkalemia, but it is not the most common or specific symptom associated with elevated potassium levels. More typical symptoms are related to muscle and gastrointestinal function.
B. Abdominal cramps are a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia (potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L). Elevated potassium can lead to increased gastrointestinal motility and irritability, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
C. Positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) and is not associated with hyperkalemia. This sign reflects increased neuromuscular excitability due to low calcium levels, so it would not be expected in this scenario.
D. Decreased bowel motility is typically associated with hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated potassium levels can cause increased bowel motility and may lead to gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and cramping. Therefore, decreased bowel motility would not be an expected finding in this case.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Medical health insurance claims. While insurance coverage is important for referral approval, the physical therapist primarily requires clinical information related to the client's mobility and functional status. Insurance details are handled by administrative staff rather than included in the clinical referral.
B. Physical assessment findings. The physical therapist needs relevant assessment findings, such as muscle strength, range of motion, balance, gait, and mobility limitations. These details help guide therapy goals and interventions to improve the client’s functional abilities.
C. Family medical history. While family history is useful for identifying genetic predispositions to conditions, it is not essential for a physical therapy referral. The focus should be on the client’s current physical status rather than hereditary factors.
D. Medications taken prior to admission. Although a client’s medication history is important for overall care, it is not the primary concern for a physical therapy referral unless specific medications affect mobility, such as muscle relaxants or sedatives. The therapist will rely more on current physical assessment findings to determine appropriate interventions.
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