A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for heart failure and has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of the medication?
Shortness of breath.
Lightheadedness.
Dry cough.
Bitter taste in the mouth.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Shortness of breath is a heart failure symptom, not a furosemide side effect, which causes diuresis. Lightheadedness from hypotension is common, making this incorrect, as it confuses disease symptoms with medication effects in the nurse’s monitoring plan for furosemide.
Choice B reason: Lightheadedness is a common furosemide adverse effect due to hypotension or electrolyte imbalances from diuresis. This aligns with pharmacological monitoring for heart failure treatment, making it the correct effect the nurse should plan to monitor in the client.
Choice C reason: Dry cough is associated with ACE inhibitors, not furosemide, a diuretic causing hypotension. Lightheadedness is a furosemide effect, making this incorrect, as it misattributes a side effect to the wrong medication in the nurse’s monitoring for heart failure treatment.
Choice D reason: Bitter taste is not a typical furosemide side effect; it’s more linked to medications like antibiotics. Lightheadedness is relevant, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the expected adverse effects the nurse should monitor with furosemide administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","G","I"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased cardiac output is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock, as the heart fails to pump adequately. This aligns with shock pathophysiology, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client for cardiogenic shock in a clinical setting.
Choice B reason: Increased pulse rate occurs in cardiogenic shock as the body compensates for low cardiac output. This aligns with cardiovascular assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would identify in a client experiencing cardiogenic shock during evaluation.
Choice C reason: Postural hypotension is more typical of hypovolemic or orthostatic issues, not cardiogenic shock, which features weak pulses. Weak thready pulse is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary sign of cardiogenic shock in the nurse’s assessment.
Choice D reason: Bounding pulse suggests hyperdynamic circulation, not cardiogenic shock, where perfusion is poor. Weak thready pulse is typical, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the compromised cardiac output expected in the nurse’s evaluation of cardiogenic shock.
Choice E reason: Weak thready pulse indicates poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock due to reduced cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral vascular assessment, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client in cardiogenic shock.
Choice F reason: Hypertension is not typical in cardiogenic shock, which often presents with hypotension due to pump failure. Pink frothy sputum is correct, making this incorrect, as it contradicts the hemodynamic profile in the nurse’s assessment of cardiogenic shock.
Choice G reason: Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds reflects poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock, consistent with low cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would note in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Choice H reason: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds suggests normal perfusion, not cardiogenic shock, where refill is delayed. Greater than 3 seconds is correct, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock assessment.
Choice I reason: Pink frothy sputum indicates pulmonary edema, common in cardiogenic shock due to left heart failure. This aligns with respiratory assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: NPO status rests the pancreas, reducing enzyme secretion in acute pancreatitis. This aligns with treatment protocols, making it a correct intervention the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client to manage pancreatic inflammation effectively.
Choice B reason: Coughing and deep breathing prevent respiratory complications like atelectasis in pancreatitis patients, who are often immobile. This aligns with standard care, making it a correct intervention the nurse would anticipate in the client’s treatment plan.
Choice C reason: Small, frequent high-calorie feedings are contraindicated in acute pancreatitis, as they stimulate the pancreas. NPO is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s inappropriate for the nurse’s expected interventions in managing acute pancreatitis.
Choice D reason: Supine and flat positioning may increase discomfort and aspiration risk in pancreatitis. Semi-Fowler’s is preferred, making this incorrect, as it’s not an expected intervention compared to the nurse’s focus on optimal positioning for the client.
Choice E reason: Hydromorphone IV provides effective pain relief in acute pancreatitis, reducing patient discomfort. This aligns with pain management protocols, making it a correct intervention the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client’s care.
Choice F reason: IV fluids at 10 mL/hr are insufficient for pancreatitis, which requires aggressive hydration. Higher rates are standard, making this incorrect, as it’s inadequate compared to the nurse’s expected fluid management in acute pancreatitis treatment.
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