The nurse is planning to teach a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about substances to avoid. Which items would the nurse include on this list? (Select all that apply)
Coffee.
Chocolate.
Peppermint.
Nonfat milk.
Fried chicken.
Scrambled eggs.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
Choice A reason: Coffee, caffeinated or decaf, relaxes the esophageal sphincter and irritates the mucosa, worsening GERD. This aligns with dietary restrictions, making it a correct substance the nurse would teach the client to avoid to prevent GERD symptom exacerbation.
Choice B reason: Chocolate contains methylxanthines and fat, relaxing the esophageal sphincter and triggering GERD symptoms. This aligns with GERD dietary guidelines, making it a correct item the nurse would include for the client to avoid to reduce reflux.
Choice C reason: Peppermint relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter, increasing acid reflux in GERD. This aligns with dietary teaching, making it a correct substance the nurse would advise the client to avoid to minimize GERD symptom flare-ups effectively.
Choice D reason: Nonfat milk is less likely to trigger GERD, as high-fat dairy worsens reflux. Coffee is a stronger trigger, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary substance the nurse would include on the GERD avoidance list.
Choice E reason: Fried chicken, high in fat, delays gastric emptying and exacerbates GERD symptoms. This aligns with dietary restrictions, making it a correct item the nurse would teach the client to avoid to prevent GERD symptom exacerbation.
Choice F reason: Scrambled eggs are low-fat and unlikely to trigger GERD compared to chocolate or coffee. This is incorrect, as it’s not a primary substance the nurse would include on the list of items to avoid for GERD management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypertension and tachycardia may occur in dialysis but aren’t specific to disequilibrium syndrome, which causes neurological symptoms. Headache and twitching are key, making this incorrect, as it’s less precise than the nurse’s expected manifestations of disequilibrium syndrome.
Choice B reason: Hypotension may occur in dialysis, but bradycardia and hypothermia aren’t typical of disequilibrium syndrome, which affects the brain. Deteriorating consciousness is correct, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t align with the nurse’s assessment for this complication.
Choice C reason: Restlessness and weakness are vague and less specific than headache and twitching, which indicate cerebral edema in disequilibrium syndrome. This is incorrect, as it’s not the primary manifestation the nurse would assess in the dialysis client.
Choice D reason: Headache, deteriorating consciousness, and twitching indicate disequilibrium syndrome due to rapid osmotic shifts during hemodialysis. This aligns with neurological assessment, making it the correct set of manifestations the nurse would monitor in the client at risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inverted T waves suggest ischemia but are less specific than troponin I, which confirms myocardial damage in ACS. This is incorrect, as it’s not the most significant finding within 3 hours compared to the nurse’s reliance on biomarkers for diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia, not ACS, which is diagnosed by troponin elevation. This is incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s expected finding for acute coronary syndrome within the first 3 hours of symptom onset.
Choice C reason: Elevated troponin I is the most significant finding for ACS, indicating myocardial necrosis within 3 hours. This aligns with diagnostic criteria, making it the correct biomarker the nurse would prioritize to confirm acute coronary syndrome in the client.
Choice D reason: Troponin T is also specific for ACS but rises slightly later than troponin I, which is detectable sooner. This is incorrect, as troponin I is more significant within 3 hours for the nurse’s diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome.
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