A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with Functional Neurologic Symptom Disorder (conversion disorder). What action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Assess regularly for self-harm during treatment.

Allow for unlimited discussion on physical symptoms.

Discuss alternative coping strategies with the client.

Encourage alone time for the client in seclusion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Assess regularly for self-harm during treatment

Regular assessment for self-harm is crucial in any psychiatric care plan, especially for clients with conversion disorder who may experience significant distress. However, this action alone does not address the underlying issues or provide the client with tools to manage their symptoms. Continuous monitoring is important, but it should be part of a broader, more comprehensive care plan.

Choice B Reason: Allow for unlimited discussion on physical symptoms

While it is important to validate the client’s experiences and provide a space for them to discuss their symptoms, allowing unlimited discussion can sometimes reinforce the symptoms and lead to increased focus on physical complaints. This approach may not be beneficial in the long term and can detract from addressing the psychological aspects of the disorder.

Choice C Reason: Discuss alternative coping strategies with the client

This is the correct answer. Discussing alternative coping strategies helps the client develop skills to manage their symptoms more effectively. Techniques such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), relaxation exercises, and stress management can be very beneficial. These strategies empower the client to handle stress and reduce the impact of their symptoms. Providing education on coping mechanisms is a proactive approach that can lead to better outcomes.

Choice D Reason: Encourage alone time for the client in seclusion

Encouraging alone time in seclusion is generally not recommended for clients with conversion disorder. Seclusion can increase feelings of isolation and distress, potentially exacerbating symptoms. Instead, supportive and interactive interventions are preferred to help the client feel connected and understood.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Pseudo-Parkinsonian side effects, also known as drug-induced parkinsonism, can occur with the use of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. These side effects include symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and postural instability. However, the description of the client’s neck arched sharply backward is more indicative of an acute dystonic reaction rather than pseudo-Parkinsonian side effects. Pseudo-Parkinsonian symptoms typically develop more gradually and do not present with such dramatic posturing.

Choice B Reason:

While some side effects of haloperidol can be temporary and may disappear after several days, the acute dystonic reaction described in the scenario requires immediate intervention. Acute dystonic reactions are characterized by sudden, severe muscle contractions that can be painful and potentially dangerous if they involve the airway. Therefore, it is crucial to address this reaction promptly rather than waiting for it to resolve on its own.

Choice C Reason:

Increasing the dosage of haloperidol in response to the described symptoms would likely exacerbate the situation. The client’s symptoms are not indicative of worsening psychotic behavior but rather an adverse reaction to the medication. Increasing the dosage could lead to more severe side effects and complications. The appropriate response is to treat the acute dystonic reaction and reassess the medication regimen.

Choice D Reason:

An acute dystonic reaction is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It involves sudden, severe muscle contractions, often affecting the neck, face, and back. This reaction can be distressing and requires immediate treatment with anticholinergic medications such as benztropine or diphenhydramine. Prompt intervention can relieve the symptoms and prevent further complications.

A. Hypertension B. Tinnitus C. Metallic taste D. Dizziness

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Hypertension.

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a common side effect of lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, which typically causes sedation and relaxation of muscles, leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Therefore, hypertension is not an expected side effect of this medication.

Choice B Reason:

Tinnitus.

Tinnitus, or ringing in the ears, is also not commonly associated with lorazepam use. While tinnitus can be a side effect of various medications, it is not typically linked to benzodiazepines like lorazepam. Therefore, it is not an expected side effect for clients taking this medication.

Choice C Reason:

Metallic taste.

A metallic taste is not a common side effect of lorazepam. This side effect is more often associated with other medications, such as certain antibiotics or chemotherapy drugs. Lorazepam’s side effects are more related to its sedative properties.

Choice D Reason:

Dizziness.

Dizziness is a common side effect of lorazepam. As a central nervous system depressant, lorazepam can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with Functional Neurologic Symptom Disorder (conversion disorder). What action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Forty-eight hours after starting haloperidol, the client is observed standing by the nurse’s station with his neck arched sharply backward. The nurse recognizes that the client:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is teaching a client about lorazepam. The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following side effects?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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