A client is having trouble remembering to take his antipsychotic medication, risperidone 3 mg PO, BID. The treatment team at the clinic he attends is considering starting him on risperidone 10 mg IM every 2 weeks. The rationale for this is:
This will help with medication compliance.
It will help him remember to take his medication.
This has a faster onset of action.
This new medication is stronger and will clear his symptoms faster.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
This will help with medication compliance.
This is the correct response. Long-acting injectable (LAI) antipsychotics like risperidone IM are often used to improve medication compliance in patients who have difficulty remembering to take their oral medications regularly. By administering the medication every two weeks, the treatment team can ensure that the client receives a consistent dose, reducing the risk of relapse due to missed doses. This approach is particularly beneficial for clients with schizophrenia, as consistent medication adherence is crucial for managing symptoms and preventing hospitalizations.
Choice B Reason:
It will help him remember to take his medication.
While this statement is related to medication compliance, it is not entirely accurate. The purpose of switching to an injectable form is to eliminate the need for the client to remember to take daily doses. Instead, the healthcare provider administers the medication at regular intervals, ensuring adherence without relying on the client’s memory.
Choice C Reason:
This has a faster onset of action.
This statement is incorrect. The onset of action for long-acting injectable risperidone is not necessarily faster than the oral form. In fact, LAIs are designed to release the medication slowly over time to maintain stable blood levels. The primary advantage of LAIs is improved adherence, not a faster onset of action.
Choice D Reason:
This new medication is stronger and will clear his symptoms faster.
This statement is also incorrect. The strength of the medication and the speed at which it clears symptoms are not the primary reasons for switching to an injectable form. The goal is to ensure consistent medication levels and improve adherence, not to increase the potency or speed of symptom relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Sits in group with back to peers
Sitting with one’s back to peers can indicate a desire for isolation or a lack of trust, but it is not a definitive sign of escalating anger or aggression. This behavior might be more indicative of withdrawal or discomfort in social settings rather than an immediate precursor to violence.
Choice B Reason: Has a tense facial expression and body language
This is the correct answer. Tense facial expressions and body language are clear indicators of escalating anger and aggression. Signs such as clenched fists, a rigid posture, and a furrowed brow are physical manifestations of internal tension and can precede aggressive outbursts. Recognizing these non-verbal cues is crucial for early intervention and de-escalation.

Choice C Reason: Requests PRN medications
Requesting PRN (as needed) medications can be a sign that the client is experiencing increased anxiety or distress. However, this behavior alone does not necessarily indicate escalating aggression. It may actually be a positive sign that the client is seeking help to manage their symptoms before they escalate.
Choice D Reason: Does not want to eat lunch
A lack of appetite or refusal to eat can be associated with various conditions, including depression, anxiety, or physical illness. While it may indicate that the client is not feeling well, it is not a specific indicator of escalating anger or aggression.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines like diazepam. It works by competitively inhibiting the action of benzodiazepines at the GABA receptor, thereby reversing sedation and other effects. Flumazenil is typically administered in cases of benzodiazepine overdose to counteract the sedative effects and restore normal respiratory function. However, it should be used cautiously as it can precipitate withdrawal and seizures in patients with long-term benzodiazepine use.
Choice B Reason:
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It is not indicated for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Chlorpromazine works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to manage symptoms of psychosis but does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.
Choice C Reason:
Lithium carbonate is a mood stabilizer commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to reduce the severity and frequency of mania and can also help to relieve or prevent bipolar depression. Lithium does not have any antagonistic effects on benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Thus, it would not be the correct medication to administer in this case.
Choice D Reason:
Methadone is a long-acting opioid used for pain management and as part of medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder. It works by binding to the same receptors in the brain as other opioids, helping to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings. Methadone does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.
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