A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting manifestations of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
Client has increased urine specific gravity.
Changes in the client's behavior.
Client is complaining of nausea.
Client is complaining of severe headache.
Client's urine output is only 50 cc/hr.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. Client has increased urine specific gravity: Increased urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, which is a hallmark of SIADH and should be reported as it reflects the excessive retention of water.
B. Changes in the client's behavior: Behavioral changes can be indicative of hyponatremia, a serious complication of SIADH, and should be reported immediately.
C. Client is complaining of nausea: Nausea is a symptom of hyponatremia, which is a common and dangerous consequence of SIADH that needs prompt attention.
D. Client is complaining of severe headache: A severe headache can also be a sign of hyponatremia and potential cerebral edema, both of which are critical conditions needing urgent intervention.
E. Client's urine output is only 50 cc/hr: While reduced urine output can be associated with SIADH, 50 cc/hr is not extremely low and might not be immediately alarming on its own. The other symptoms are more critical and should take precedence in reporting to the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain: This prescription is appropriate for managing pain associated with acute heart failure and MI.
B. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. However, the frequency of administration (every 12 hours) may not be sufficient for managing acute heart failure, where more frequent dosing may be necessary initially.
C. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission: This is a routine and appropriate order to monitor electrolyte balance, especially with the use of diuretics.
D. 0.9% normal saline IV at 75 mL/hr: This is a maintenance IV fluid rate that may be appropriate depending on the client's fluid status. However, it does not directly address acute heart failure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client has a history of bronchial asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker and can potentially exacerbate bronchospasm in individuals with asthma due to its beta-blocking effects on beta-2 receptors in the bronchioles. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and consideration of alternative medications.
B. The client has a history of migraine headaches: Propranolol is commonly used prophylactically to prevent migraine headaches, so this finding is not a contraindication for its use and does not require immediate reporting to the provider.
C. The client has a history of hypertension: Propranolol is often prescribed for hypertension, so this finding is expected and not a cause for concern.
D. The client has a history of hypothyroidism: While propranolol can affect thyroid function tests, a history of hypothyroidism alone is not a contraindication for its use, and it does not
require immediate reporting to the provider. However, thyroid function should be monitored during therapy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
