A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an appendectomy.
Vital Signs 1800:
Temperature 98.4° F (36.8° C) Heart rate 104/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
Blood pressure 142/80 mm Hg O2 saturation 97% on room air 1800:
Client alert and oriented x 4
Skin warm and dry
Lungs clear on auscultation
Bowel sounds hypoactive in all four quadrants Urine clear yellow
Incisional dressing clean and dry
Client reports pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
1815:
Morphine administered as prescribed
2000:
Temperature 98.4° F (36.8° C) Heart rate 110/min Respiratory rate 24/min
Blood pressure 158/88 mm Hg O2 saturation 93% on room air.
Which of the following 4 client findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Bowel sounds
Oxygen saturation
Nausea
Vomiting
Pain level
Heart rate
Incision characteristics
Lungs sounds
Correct Answer : B,C,E,F
- A. Bowel sounds are hypoactive in all four quadrants, which is expected after an appendectomy due to anesthesia and decreased peristalsis. This is not a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- B. Oxygen saturation is 93% on room air, which is below the normal range of 95% to 100%. This could indicate impaired gas exchange, respiratory depression, or infection. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- C. Nausea is a common feature of appendicitis and should go away with appendectomy. This finding should, therefore, be reported to the healthcare provider.
- D. Vomiting is also a common side effect of morphine and anesthesia, and can be managed with antiemetics and fluids. This is not a finding that needs to be reported to the provider unless it persists or interferes with oral intake.
- E. Pain level is 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. The client received morphine as prescribed at 1815, and the pain level is still significant. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider
- F. Heart rate is 110/min, which is above the normal range of 60 to 100/min. This could indicate pain, anxiety, dehydration, infection, or bleeding. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- G. Incision characteristics are clean and dry, which is expected after an appendectomy. However, the nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, drainage, or odor. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider if any signs of infection are present.
- H. Lungs sounds are clear on auscultation, which is expected after an appendectomy. However, the nurse should encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider if any abnormal lung sounds are heard such as crackles, wheezes, or diminished breath sounds.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Assign the client to a private room with negative air pressure.
Rationale:
- A. Incorrect. Restricting fresh flowers from the client's room is not necessary for infection control purposes. However, some clients with pulmonary tuberculosis may have hypersensitivity reactions to certain plants or flowers, so the nurse should assess the client's allergies before allowing them in the room.
- B. Incorrect. Maintaining a distance of 1.8 m (6 feet) from the client is not sufficient to prevent transmission of tuberculosis. Visitors should also wear a HEPA respirator and limit their contact time with the client.
- C. Incorrect. A surgical mask is not adequate to protect the nurse from inhaling airborne droplet nuclei that contain Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The nurse should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator when providing client care.
- D. Correct. Assigning the client to a private room with negative air pressure is the most effective way to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to other clients and staff members. The room should have at least six air exchanges per hour and an exhaust system that vents directly to the outside.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
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