A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following orthopedic surgery and is receiving IV ketorolac.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Dry mouth.
Oliguria.
Nausea.
Altered taste.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Dry mouth can be an anticholinergic effect of some medications or a symptom of dehydration, but it is not a direct, priority adverse effect associated with ketorolac, which is an NSAID. While uncomfortable, it does not indicate immediate life-threatening organ dysfunction.
Choice B rationale
Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which can lead to adverse renal effects. Prostaglandins play a crucial role in maintaining renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate. Oliguria (urine output < 0.5 mL/kg/hr or < 400 mL/24 hr) indicates potential acute kidney injury, a serious and life-threatening complication that requires immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice C rationale
Nausea is a common gastrointestinal adverse effect of NSAIDs, including ketorolac, due to direct irritation of the gastric mucosa or central effects. While it can cause discomfort and impact client well-being, it is generally not a life-threatening symptom and does not take priority over signs of organ damage.
Choice D rationale
Altered taste, or dysgeusia, can be an idiosyncratic drug reaction but is not a common or priority adverse effect of ketorolac. While it can affect appetite and client satisfaction, it does not signify acute organ damage or a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is much thinner than the therapeutic range for most conditions (usually 2.0-3.0 for warfarin). This significantly increases the risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin because it is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) in the liver. Administering vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, reducing the risk of hemorrhage by promoting the production of functional clotting proteins.
Choice B rationale
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. It works by forming a stable ion pair with heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. It has no effect on the anticoagulant properties of warfarin, which acts by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase, an enzyme crucial for the regeneration of active vitamin K necessary for clotting factor synthesis. Therefore, protamine is not indicated for warfarin overdose.
Choice C rationale
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypocalcemia and magnesium toxicity. Calcium plays a vital role in numerous physiological processes, including bone health and muscle function, and is essential for blood coagulation. However, it does not directly counteract the effects of warfarin, which targets vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and is not the appropriate antidote for an elevated INR.
Choice D rationale
Epinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator used in anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma. It acts on alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and bronchodilation. It has no role in reversing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and is not indicated for managing an elevated INR.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Restlessness, also known as akathisia, is not a typical expected adverse effect of ondansetron. Ondansetron primarily acts as a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, blocking serotonin's emetogenic effects in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and gastrointestinal tract. Common adverse effects are generally mild, including headache, constipation, or diarrhea, with neurological effects like restlessness being rare and atypical for this drug's primary mechanism.
Choice B rationale
Ondansetron should be administered prophylactically, typically 30 minutes *before* chemotherapy, to achieve optimal antiemetic effect. Its mechanism involves blocking serotonin receptors that, when activated by chemotherapy, trigger nausea and vomiting. Pre-emptive administration ensures therapeutic drug levels are present to counteract the emetogenic stimuli effectively before their onset.
Choice C rationale
Acute nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy can persist for significantly longer than 12 hours, often lasting for 24 to 48 hours or even longer depending on the specific chemotherapeutic agent and its emetogenic potential. The duration of emesis is highly variable and directly related to the drug's pharmacokinetic profile and the extent of serotonin release.
Choice D rationale
If nausea persists despite ondansetron administration, it indicates an inadequate antiemetic response, likely due to the complex neurochemical pathways involved in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This often necessitates a multi-modal approach, involving the addition of other antiemetic agents like corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone) or neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists (e.g., aprepitant) to target different emetogenic pathways for more complete symptom control.
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