A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metalopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Black stools
Dry cough
Oral candidias
Tardive dyskinesia
The Correct Answer is D
A) Black stools: While black stools can be a potential side effect of gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not commonly associated with high-dose metoclopramide. This side effect is more commonly seen with medications such as aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is not the most pertinent adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
B) Dry cough: Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of metoclopramide. Cough is more commonly associated with medications such as ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
C) Oral candidiasis: While oral candidiasis (oral thrush) can occur as a side effect of some medications, it is not commonly associated with metoclopramide. Oral candidiasis is more frequently seen with corticosteroids or antibiotics. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
D) Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a serious adverse effect associated with prolonged use of edicaopramide, especially at high doses. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, or other parts of the body. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, such as repetitive facial grimacing or tongue protrusion, is crucial when administering high-dose metoclopramide to prevent this potentially irreversible condition. Therefore, this is the correct adverse effect to monitor for in clients receiving high-dose metoclopramide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Ginkgo biloba: This is the correct answer. Ginkgo biloba is contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin because it can increase the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. It can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bruising and bleeding complications.
B) Valerian: While valerian is an herbal supplement used for its sedative effects, it does not typically interact significantly with warfarin. However, caution should still be exercised when combining valerian with any medication due to its potential to cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of other central nervous system depressants.
C) Coenzyme Q10: Coenzyme Q10 is a dietary supplement that is generally well-tolerated and does not have significant interactions with warfarin. It is often used as an antioxidant and for various cardiovascular conditions.
D) Probiotics: Probiotics are beneficial bacteria that can aid in gut health but are unlikely to interact significantly with warfarin. However, it is essential to monitor for any potential changes in gastrointestinal function when starting probiotics concurrently with warfarin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Increased energy: While increased energy could be a positive outcome of treatment, it is not a specific indicator of the client's response to spironolactone therapy for’cirrhosis.
B) Decreased ascites: This is the correct answer. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is commonly used to treat ascites in clients with cirrhosis by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid retention in the abdomen. Therefore, a decrease in ascites indicates a positive response to spironolactone therapy.
C) Increased appetite: Increased appetite is not typically a direct response to spironolactone therapy for cirrhosis. It may be influenced by various factors and is not specific to the client's response to the medication.
D) Decrea’ed jaundice: While spironolactone may indirectly help improve liver function, decrease fluid retention, and alleviate symptoms of cirrhosis, it is not primarily used to address jaundice. Other interventions and treatments may be necessary to manage jaundice in clients with liver cirrhosis.
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