A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Hypomagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hypomagnesemia:
Correct Answer: This electrolyte imbalance is the one the nurse should assess the client for.
Explanation: Lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and its excretion can be influenced by factors that affect renal function, including electrolyte imbalances. Hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels) can potentially reduce the excretion of lithium, leading to increased lithium levels in the blood. This can increase the risk of lithium toxicity, which can be dangerous. Therefore, monitoring magnesium levels is important in clients taking lithium.
B. Hyponatremia:
Incorrect Explanation: While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is a potential concern, it is not as directly linked to lithium interaction as hypomagnesemia.
Explanation: Lithium can cause diabetes insipidus, which leads to excessive urination and subsequent loss of water and electrolytes, including sodium. However, hyponatremia is not the immediate electrolyte imbalance that arises due to the interaction with lithium.
C. Hypocalcemia:
Incorrect Explanation: Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a primary concern in the context of lithium use.
Explanation: Lithium does not have a direct interaction with calcium levels. Hypocalcemia is typically not a result of lithium use or its interaction with other factors.
D. Hypokalemia:
Incorrect Explanation: While electrolyte imbalances like hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can have health implications, it is not the primary electrolyte imbalance to be concerned about with lithium use.
Explanation: Hypokalemia is not a direct consequence of lithium interaction. Monitoring potassium levels is important for overall health, but it's not the primary electrolyte imbalance associated with lithium use and its potential interactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peanuts:
While peanut allergies can be severe and life-threatening, they are not a contraindication to receiving the influenza vaccine. Influenza vaccines are not made with peanut-derived ingredients and do not pose a risk to individuals with peanut allergies.
B. Milk:
Milk allergies are not a contraindication to receiving the influenza vaccine. Influenza vaccines are typically free of milk-derived ingredients and do not contain significant amounts of milk proteins that would trigger an allergic reaction in individuals with milk allergies.
C. Shellfish:
Shellfish allergies are not a contraindication to receiving the influenza vaccine. Influenza vaccines are not derived from shellfish and do not contain shellfish proteins that could cause an allergic reaction in individuals with shellfish allergies.
D. Eggs:
This is the correct choice. In the past, some influenza vaccines were prepared using egg-based methods, which could pose a risk to individuals with severe egg allergies. However, most modern influenza vaccines, including those approved for administration in the United States, have extremely low egg protein content. The majority of individuals with egg allergies can safely receive the influenza vaccine, but those with a history of severe egg allergy may still need to consult with their healthcare provider before vaccination.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client has a negative sputum culture.
When a client with tuberculosis is adhering to the prescribed medication regimen, their sputum cultures should show a decrease in the number of Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. This indicates that the medication is effectively treating the infection. It's important for clients with tuberculosis to complete their full course of treatment to prevent drug-resistant strains of the bacteria from developing.
B. The client tests negative for HIV: This relates to a different infection (HIV) and doesn't necessarily reflect adherence to the tuberculosis medication regimen.
C. The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range: While liver function tests are important to monitor due to potential medication side effects, they don't directly indicate medication adherence.
D. The client has a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test: A positive PPD test indicates exposure to the tuberculosis bacteria in the past but does not reflect current adherence to treatment.
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