A nurse is caring for a client who presented with unilateral facial droop and weakness that lasted for about an hour before resolving spontaneausly without intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this situation?

The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region

This type of event can be one of the primary warning sign of a future stroke

The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke

The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region:
While a facial droop and weakness can be indicative of a stroke, the specific location of the blockage cannot be definitively determined based on the symptoms alone. A right-sided facial droop suggests that the lesion or event likely involves the left side of the brain, particularly the frontal or temporal regions, as these areas are typically associated with facial motor control. A parietal lesion would more commonly result in sensory deficits or spatial issues, not primarily facial droop. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this case.

B. This type of event can be one of the primary warning signs of a future stroke:
The client’s presentation of unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolves spontaneously within an hour is highly consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA, often referred to as a "mini-stroke," is characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve without permanent damage. TIAs are considered warning signs of a potential future stroke, and the client should be evaluated promptly to address risk factors and prevent a more serious, permanent stroke.

C. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke:
An acute hemorrhagic stroke typically presents with sudden and severe neurological deficits, such as a severe headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. Hemorrhagic strokes do not typically resolve spontaneously within an hour. The client's symptoms (unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolve within an hour) are more indicative of a TIA, not a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke would likely result in sustained deficits and a more urgent clinical presentation.

D. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure:
Focal awareness seizures (previously known as simple partial seizures) generally involve abnormal electrical activity in a specific area of the brain, leading to symptoms such as motor twitches or sensory disturbances, but not typically a full facial droop or weakness. These seizures do not cause symptoms that resolve in such a short time, nor do they present with unilateral weakness in the manner described here. Therefore, this scenario is not consistent with a seizure disorder.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 2-6 hours before meals:
This timeframe is too long for rapid-acting insulin like Lispro. Rapid-acting insulins, such as Lispro, begin to work quickly after administration, typically within 15 minutes, and peak around 1 to 2 hours after injection. Administering it 2-6 hours before meals would not align with the timing of food intake and would likely lead to hypoglycemia before the meal. Timing of rapid-acting insulin should be closer to the meal to match the rise in blood glucose levels that occurs after eating.

B. Lispro lasts 24 hours and does not have to be timed with meals:
This statement is incorrect. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, and its duration of action is much shorter than 24 hours, typically lasting about 3-5 hours. It is crucial to time the administration of Lispro with meals to match its peak action with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating. A long-acting insulin would be the type that lasts for 24 hours, but that is not the case with Lispro.

C. 15-30 minutes before meals:
Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, and its onset of action occurs within 15 minutes after injection. It is most effective when administered within 15-30 minutes before the start of a meal, as it peaks in about 1-2 hours and works to regulate blood glucose levels during and after the meal. This timing ensures that insulin works in concert with the rise in blood glucose following food intake, helping prevent hyperglycemia.

D. 60 minutes before meals:
Administering Lispro 60 minutes before a meal is too early. Rapid-acting insulins, such as Lispro, begin working quickly and reach peak action within 1-2 hours. If administered too far in advance, there is a risk that the insulin may have peaked before the meal, leading to a potential drop in blood glucose levels before the meal is consumed. This could result in hypoglycemia. Therefore, administering it closer to the meal, within 15-30 minutes, is the optimal timing.

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

Given:

Desired dose: Phenytoin 250 mg

Available concentration: Phenytoin oral solution 25 mg/5 mL

To find:

Volume to administer per dose (in mL)

Step 1: Set up the proportion

We can use the following proportion to solve the problem:

(Desired dose) / (Available concentration) = Volume to administer

Step 2: Substitute the values

Plugging in the given values, we get:

(250 mg) / (25 mg/5 mL) = Volume to administer

Step 3: Simplify

To simplify, we can invert the denominator and multiply:

(250 mg) x (5 mL / 25 mg) = Volume to administer

The "mg" units cancel out, leaving us with:

(250 x 5 mL) / 25 = Volume to administer

Step 4: Calculate

Performing the multiplication and division, we get:

1250 mL / 25 = Volume to administer

50 mL = Volume to administer

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A nurse is caring for a client who presented with unilateral facial droop and weakness that lasted for about an hour before resolving spontaneausly without intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this situation?

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["50"]

Explanation

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