The nurse is preparing to administer a shot of vitamin B12 to a client with low hemoglobin. The nurse knows that this medication is most indicative of which type of anemia?

Pernicious anemia

Hemolytic anemia

Iron deficiency anemia

Aplastic anemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Pernicious anemia:
Vitamin B12 injections are most commonly used to treat pernicious anemia, which is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to an inability to absorb the vitamin from the gastrointestinal tract. This condition is often associated with a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein required for vitamin B12 absorption. As a result, the body cannot make enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. The treatment of pernicious anemia typically involves lifelong vitamin B12 injections, making this the correct answer.

B) Hemolytic anemia:
It is not typically treated with vitamin B12 injections. Instead, hemolytic anemia may require treatments that address the underlying cause of red blood cell destruction, such as corticosteroids, immunosuppressive therapy, or splenectomy, depending on the type of hemolysis. Therefore, vitamin B12 would not be the primary treatment for this type of anemia.

C) Iron deficiency anemia:
It is typically treated with iron supplements, either orally or intravenously, rather than vitamin B12. While both conditions cause anemia, the treatment for iron deficiency anemia is not vitamin B12, so this is not the correct choice.

D) Aplastic anemia:
This condition is usually treated with treatments such as bone marrow stimulants, blood transfusions, or bone marrow transplantation, rather than vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 supplementation would not be indicated for the treatment of aplastic anemia.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels:
Strains refer to injuries of muscles or tendons due to overuse, overstretching, or tearing. A strain does not typically involve fractured bones or tearing blood vessels. Sprains, on the other hand, involve ligaments, not muscles or tendons, and may or may not involve fractures or tearing of blood vessels.

B) "A strain should be treated with heat in the first 24 hours then ice after:
. The general recommendation for the initial treatment of a strain (and sprain) is rest, ice, compression, and elevation (R.I.C.E.) within the first 24-48 hours. Ice should be applied during this period to reduce swelling and inflammation, not heat. Heat may be used after the first 48 hours to promote healing and reduce muscle stiffness, but it should not be used during the acute phase of the injury.

C) A sprain involves stretching or tearing or tearing of ligaments at a joint:
This is the correct statement. A sprain is an injury to a ligament, which is the tissue connecting bones to other bones. It is typically caused by stretching, overextension, or tearing of the ligament, often resulting from a sudden or awkward movement at a joint. Sprains commonly occur at areas such as the ankle, knee, and wrist.

D) A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon:
. A sprain involves damage to a ligament, not a muscle or tendon. Damage to muscles or tendons is classified as a strain, not a sprain. Strains refer to overuse or tearing of muscle fibers or tendons, not ligaments.

A. Positive Trousseau's sign B. Hypertension and headache C. Tachycardia and tachypnea D. Depressed deep tendon reflexes and lethargy

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Positive Trousseau's sign:
A positive Trousseau's sign (spasms of the hand and forearm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated) is a sign of hypocalcemia, not hypermagnesemia. It indicates low calcium levels in the blood, not elevated magnesium levels. Therefore, this is not indicative of hypermagnesemia.

B. Hypertension and headache:
Hypertension and headache are more commonly associated with hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels), rather than hypermagnesemia. Elevated magnesium levels tend to cause vasodilation, which can lead to hypotension, not hypertension. Therefore, these symptoms are not consistent with hypermagnesemia.

C. Tachycardia and tachypnea:
Tachycardia and tachypnea are often signs of hypomagnesemia as well, where the body compensates for low magnesium by increasing heart rate and breathing rate. Hypermagnesemia, on the other hand, usually causes bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and respiratory depression. So, tachycardia and tachypnea are not indicative of hypermagnesemia.

D. Depressed deep tendon reflexes and lethargy:
This is the correct answer. Hypermagnesemia can lead to depressed deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and lethargy, as magnesium is a central nervous system depressant. Elevated magnesium levels inhibit neuromuscular function, which can cause symptoms such as diminished reflexes, muscle weakness, and overall lethargy or drowsiness. This combination of findings is a key indicator of hypermagnesemia.

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The nurse is preparing to administer a shot of vitamin B12 to a client with low hemoglobin. The nurse knows that this medication is most indicative of which type of anemia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with musculoskeletal trauma asks the nurse about the difference between a strain and a sprain. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is monitoring a client receiving an infusion of IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following findings would indicate to the nurse that the client isexperiencing hypermagnesemia?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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