The nurse is preparing to administer a shot of vitamin B12 to a client with low hemoglobin. The nurse knows that this medication is most indicative of which type of anemia?

Pernicious anemia

Hemolytic anemia

Iron deficiency anemia

Aplastic anemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Pernicious anemia:
Vitamin B12 injections are most commonly used to treat pernicious anemia, which is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to an inability to absorb the vitamin from the gastrointestinal tract. This condition is often associated with a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein required for vitamin B12 absorption. As a result, the body cannot make enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. The treatment of pernicious anemia typically involves lifelong vitamin B12 injections, making this the correct answer.

B) Hemolytic anemia:
It is not typically treated with vitamin B12 injections. Instead, hemolytic anemia may require treatments that address the underlying cause of red blood cell destruction, such as corticosteroids, immunosuppressive therapy, or splenectomy, depending on the type of hemolysis. Therefore, vitamin B12 would not be the primary treatment for this type of anemia.

C) Iron deficiency anemia:
It is typically treated with iron supplements, either orally or intravenously, rather than vitamin B12. While both conditions cause anemia, the treatment for iron deficiency anemia is not vitamin B12, so this is not the correct choice.

D) Aplastic anemia:
This condition is usually treated with treatments such as bone marrow stimulants, blood transfusions, or bone marrow transplantation, rather than vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 supplementation would not be indicated for the treatment of aplastic anemia.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) IV antibiotics: Administering IV antibiotics is important to prevent infection, particularly in open fractures, but it does not directly address the prevention of fat embolism. Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat droplets are released into the bloodstream, typically from bone marrow after a fracture, and antibiotics have no role in preventing this specific complication. Antibiotics would be more relevant for preventing infection from the open wound, not for managing fat embolism risk.

B) Encouraging the patient not to bend at the hip: While avoiding unnecessary movement or bending at the hip may help prevent further injury, it does not specifically address the prevention of fat embolism. Fat embolism is primarily a concern due to the fracture itself and the subsequent release of fat from the bone marrow into the bloodstream. Restricting hip movement alone is not a preventive strategy for this condition.

C) Early immobilization of the fractured leg: The most effective intervention for preventing fat embolism is early immobilization of the fractured leg. Immobilization stabilizes the bone, preventing the release of fat droplets from the bone marrow into the bloodstream, which is the primary mechanism behind fat embolism. Early stabilization of the fracture helps minimize this risk, making this the priority action in the immediate care of a client with an open femur fracture.

D) Irrigating the open wound with sterile Normal Saline: While wound irrigation is essential for preventing infection and is part of the standard care for an open fracture, it does not directly prevent fat embolism. The risk of fat embolism arises from the fracture itself, and the priority in this case is stabilization of the bone to prevent the release of fat into circulation. Irrigating the wound helps with infection control, but it is not the most critical step for fat embolism prevention.

A. The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region B. This type of event can be one of the primary warning sign of a future stroke C. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke D. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region:
While a facial droop and weakness can be indicative of a stroke, the specific location of the blockage cannot be definitively determined based on the symptoms alone. A right-sided facial droop suggests that the lesion or event likely involves the left side of the brain, particularly the frontal or temporal regions, as these areas are typically associated with facial motor control. A parietal lesion would more commonly result in sensory deficits or spatial issues, not primarily facial droop. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this case.

B. This type of event can be one of the primary warning signs of a future stroke:
The client’s presentation of unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolves spontaneously within an hour is highly consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA, often referred to as a "mini-stroke," is characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve without permanent damage. TIAs are considered warning signs of a potential future stroke, and the client should be evaluated promptly to address risk factors and prevent a more serious, permanent stroke.

C. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke:
An acute hemorrhagic stroke typically presents with sudden and severe neurological deficits, such as a severe headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. Hemorrhagic strokes do not typically resolve spontaneously within an hour. The client's symptoms (unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolve within an hour) are more indicative of a TIA, not a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke would likely result in sustained deficits and a more urgent clinical presentation.

D. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure:
Focal awareness seizures (previously known as simple partial seizures) generally involve abnormal electrical activity in a specific area of the brain, leading to symptoms such as motor twitches or sensory disturbances, but not typically a full facial droop or weakness. These seizures do not cause symptoms that resolve in such a short time, nor do they present with unilateral weakness in the manner described here. Therefore, this scenario is not consistent with a seizure disorder.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The nurse is preparing to administer a shot of vitamin B12 to a client with low hemoglobin. The nurse knows that this medication is most indicative of which type of anemia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following is the priority intervention for preventing a fat embolism in a client experiencing an open femur fracture?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who presented with unilateral facial droop and weakness that lasted for about an hour before resolving spontaneausly without intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this situation?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client in the immediate post-operative setting. Which of the following finding requires priority intervention to prevent long-term complications?

The nurse is caring for a client and witnesses them begin to have tonic-cionic.seizure. The client has a patent peripheral IV medications would the nurse most likely administer seizure activity

A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client who has seizures and a new prescription for phenytoin, which of following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

The nurse is educating a student on moderate/conscious sedation. Which of the following is a correct statement about moderate sedation?

Which action should the nurse take first when discovering a fire in the client's bathroom trash can?

A client in the emergency department is being prepared to receive tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The nurse knows that which of the following is true regarding this medication?