A nurse is caring for a client who taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following side effects of benztropine?

Bradycardia

Excess salivation

Urinary retention

Diarrhea

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Bradycardia:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by blocking the action of acetylcholine. While anticholinergic medications can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not a common side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine may have the opposite effect, potentially causing tachycardia (increased heart rate).

B) Excess salivation:
Excessive salivation is typically a symptom of Parkinson's disease itself, due to difficulty swallowing, rather than a side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine, as an anticholinergic agent, generally reduces salivation (anticholinergic effect), so this side effect is unlikely to occur with benztropine therapy.

C) Urinary retention:
Benztropine, being an anticholinergic drug, can inhibit the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder, leading to urinary retention. This is a common and serious side effect of anticholinergic drugs like benztropine. Urinary retention can lead to discomfort, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and kidney problems if not addressed.

D) Diarrhea:
Benztropine is more likely to cause constipation rather than diarrhea due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications often slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.

B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:

The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.

C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.

D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.

A. Women should start yearly mammograms at age 40. B. Women should have a yearly clinical breast examination starting at age 50. C. Clients should have fecal occult blood test every other year D. Clients should have a colonoscopy at age 40 and every 10 years thereafter.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Women should start yearly mammograms at age 40:
Mammography is a key screening tool for breast cancer detection. According to guidelines from the American Cancer Society (ACS) and other leading health organizations, women should begin annual mammograms at age 40. This recommendation applies to average-risk women who are not showing any symptoms of breast cancer. Mammograms are effective in detecting early-stage breast cancer, which is crucial for better treatment outcomes.

B) Women should have a yearly clinical breast examination starting at age 50:
The clinical breast examination (CBE) is a physical exam performed by a healthcare provider to check for breast cancer. However, the recommendation is to have a clinical breast examination every 1-3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and annually for women 40 and older, not just beginning at age 50. It is not necessary to wait until age 50 to start yearly CBEs.

C) Clients should have fecal occult blood test every other year:
The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which may be a sign of colon cancer. However, this test is not typically performed every other year for all clients. The recommended schedule for colorectal cancer screening depends on risk factors. The American Cancer Society recommends annual FOBT or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) for clients over the age of 45 who are at average risk for colon cancer. More invasive tests, such as colonoscopy, are generally recommended for people at higher risk or after positive results from non-invasive tests like FOBT.

D) Clients should have a colonoscopy at age 40 and every 10 years thereafter:
The recommended age for the first colonoscopy is age 45 for individuals at average risk of colorectal cancer, not 40. Colonoscopies are typically performed every 10 years after the initial screening unless there are risk factors (e.g., family history, genetic conditions) that require earlier or more frequent screenings.

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A nurse is caring for a client who taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following side effects of benztropine?

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