A nurse is caring for a client with an acute heart failure exacerbation. Which of the following medications are commonly prescribed to manage heart failure? (Select all that apply.)

Atorvastatin

Furosemide

Methimazole

Apixaban

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,E

A.   Atorvastatin is a statin used primarily to manage hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol levels) and reduce cardiovascular risk. However, it is not specifically used to treat heart failure symptoms or manage acute exacerbations.
B.   Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to manage heart failure. It helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis (increased urine production), which can help alleviate symptoms of heart failure such as edema and pulmonary congestion.
C.   Methimazole is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism. It is not used to treat heart failure. Thyroid disorders can impact heart failure, but methimazole itself does not address the acute symptoms or underlying mechanisms of heart failure.
D.   Apixaban is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) used to prevent blood clots in conditions like atrial fibrillation. However, it is not used specifically to manage acute heart failure symptoms.
E.   Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that can be used to manage heart failure, especially in patients with atrial fibrillation. It helps improve cardiac output and control heart rate. Digoxin can be useful in managing heart failure symptoms by enhancing the heart's contractility and controlling the heart rate.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.

A. "It develops due to an autoimmune reaction after a recent infection." B. "The exact cause is unknown, but it's thought to involve a combination of genetics and environmental factors." C. "The cause is thought to be reactivation of a virus in cranial nerve VII." D. "It is caused by demyelination of nerves in the brain and spinal cord."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Parkinson's disease is not generally considered to be caused by an autoimmune reaction or a recent infection. Autoimmune reactions leading to neurodegeneration are more commonly associated with other conditions such as multiple sclerosis, not Parkinson's disease.
B. The exact cause of Parkinson's disease is indeed unknown, but research suggests that it results from a combination of genetic predispositions and environmental factors. Genetic mutations may contribute to the development of Parkinson's disease in some individuals, while environmental factors such as exposure to certain toxins or other external influences might also play a role. The interplay between these factors is still being studied.
C. There is no evidence to support the idea that Parkinson's disease is caused by the reactivation of a virus affecting cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve). Parkinson's disease involves the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain, not specifically related to viral reactivation or isolated to cranial nerve VII.
D. Demyelination of nerves is characteristic of multiple sclerosis, not Parkinson's disease. In Parkinson's disease, the primary issue is the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain, not demyelination. This option describes a different pathological process unrelated to Parkinson's disease.

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A nurse is caring for a client with an acute heart failure exacerbation. Which of the following medications are commonly prescribed to manage heart failure? (Select all that apply.)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following clients is at a higher risk of developing osteoarthritis?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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