A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse recognize as the most concerning for a client with this condition?

Petechiae on the oral mucosa.

Hemoglobin of 14 g/dL.

Bleeding of the gums after oral care.

Pain and swelling in one leg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin or mucous membranes, caused by bleeding under the skin. While petechiae can indicate bleeding, they are not specific to HIT and can occur due to various reasons, including low platelet count or coagulation disorders. They do not necessarily indicate thrombotic complications associated with HIT.
B.   This hemoglobin level is within the normal range for adults and does not directly correlate with HIT. However, it is important to monitor hemoglobin levels in patients with HIT due to the risk of bleeding and thrombosis.
C.   Bleeding gums can occur due to various reasons, including gum disease or thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). In HIT, the concern is not just bleeding but also the paradoxical risk of thrombosis despite low platelet counts. Bleeding from mucosal surfaces can indicate underlying thrombocytopenia but does not specifically highlight the thrombotic risk of HIT.
D.   This symptom is concerning for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a thrombotic complication associated with HIT. HIT predisposes patients to thrombosis due to the formation of antibodies against

platelet factor 4/heparin complexes, leading to platelet activation and clot formation. DVT is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism (PE).

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Defibrillation is not typically indicated for atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation involves disorganized electrical activity in the atria rather than a shockable rhythm like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, emergency defibrillation is not appropriate for a client with persistent atrial fibrillation.
B. CABG is a surgical procedure used to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries. It is primarily indicated for clients with significant coronary artery disease that cannot be managed effectively with medications or less invasive
C. Anticoagulant therapy, such as with medications like warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), is crucial for clients with atrial fibrillation. AFib predisposes individuals to an increased risk of stroke due to the potential formation of blood clots in the atria. Anticoagulants help prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of stroke.
D. Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are often used to manage fluid overload or congestion in conditions such as heart failure or volume overload. However, diuretic therapy alone does not address the underlying rhythm abnormality of atrial fibrillation.

A. The client has a harmful gene mutation which puts him at a higher risk for cancer in the future. B. The client will need additional testing to determine if he has cancer. C. The client has prostate cancer. D. The client has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. PSA levels themselves do not indicate a gene mutation. Elevated PSA levels are primarily associated with prostate conditions rather than genetic mutations. While certain genetic mutations can predispose individuals to prostate cancer, PSA alone does not diagnose genetic mutations.
B. Elevated PSA levels can indicate the possibility of prostate cancer, but further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Additional tests may include a digital rectal exam (DRE), imaging studies (such as ultrasound or MRI), and a prostate biopsy.
C. Elevated PSA levels can suggest prostate cancer, but they do not definitively diagnose it. Prostate cancer can only be confirmed through a biopsy that identifies cancerous cells in the prostate tissue.
D. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that commonly occurs in older men. While BPH can cause urinary symptoms similar to prostate cancer, elevated PSA levels are not typically associated with BPH alone. PSA elevation is more specific to prostate cancer but can also occur with other prostate conditions.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse recognize as the most concerning for a client with this condition?

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An older adult client who is having difficulty passing urine is found to have elevated levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The nurse understands that this finding indicates which of the following?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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