A nurse is caring for a female client who is at 8 weeks of gestation in the emergency department.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct condition:
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized ovum implants outside the uterine cavity, typically in the fallopian tube. The absence of an intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound at an hCG level of 2000 IU/L (above the discriminatory zone of 1500-2000 IU/L) strongly suggests ectopic pregnancy. The patient’s left lower quadrant pain and vaginal bleeding are classic signs. Progesterone >4 ng/dL indicates a potentially viable pregnancy, but no intrauterine gestation confirms ectopic risk. Early diagnosis is crucial to prevent tubal rupture and hemorrhagic shock.
Rationale for correct actions:
Intramuscular methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist used to medically manage unruptured ectopic pregnancies by inhibiting trophoblastic cell division. It is preferred when the patient is hemodynamically stable, avoiding surgery. CBC monitors for anemia from bleeding; liver function tests assess methotrexate toxicity risk, as the drug is hepatotoxic. Both are essential for safe medical management.
Rationale for correct parameters:
Hypotension indicates potential internal bleeding from tubal rupture requiring immediate intervention. Referred shoulder pain occurs from diaphragmatic irritation by blood in the peritoneal cavity, signaling intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Monitoring these signs allows early detection of complications.
Rationale for incorrect conditions:
Spontaneous abortion typically shows declining hCG and intrauterine findings of miscarriage, which are absent here. Molar pregnancy presents with markedly elevated hCG (>100,000 IU/L) and characteristic ultrasound “snowstorm” appearance, not seen. Cervical insufficiency causes painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not early pregnancy pain with bleeding.
Rationale for incorrect actions:
Dilation and curettage is indicated in incomplete abortion, not ectopic pregnancy. Cervical cerclage treats cervical insufficiency, unrelated to this presentation. Oxytocic agents induce uterine contractions in miscarriage or labor, not ectopic management.
Rationale for incorrect parameters:
Size of uterus is irrelevant here because no intrauterine pregnancy is seen. Uterine cramping is nonspecific and more relevant in miscarriage. Leakage of amniotic fluid occurs in membrane rupture, not ectopic pregnancy.
Take-home points:
- Absence of intrauterine pregnancy at hCG >1500 IU/L suggests ectopic pregnancy.
- Methotrexate is first-line medical treatment for stable ectopic pregnancies.
- Hypotension and referred shoulder pain are critical signs of rupture and hemorrhage.
- Differentiation from miscarriage, molar pregnancy, and cervical insufficiency is vital for appropriate care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A single dose of the rubella vaccine is typically sufficient to confer immunity. A second dose is not routinely recommended after postpartum administration. The primary goal is to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies by ensuring the mother develops adequate antibody titers to the virus.
Choice B rationale
The rubella vaccine contains live attenuated virus, which carries a theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome if the vaccine virus crosses the placenta during pregnancy. Therefore, clients are advised to avoid conception for at least 1 to 3 months, commonly stated as 4 months, after vaccination to minimize any potential fetal exposure.
Choice C rationale
The rubella immunization typically provides long-lasting immunity. It is not necessary to receive an additional rubella immunization during the first trimester of a subsequent pregnancy. Antibody titers are usually maintained, protecting against future rubella infection and subsequent fetal harm.
Choice D rationale
The rubella vaccine is considered safe for breastfeeding mothers and their infants. The live attenuated virus is not shed in breast milk in significant amounts that would pose a risk of infection to the infant. Therefore, breastfeeding can continue without interruption after rubella immunization.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fetal heart rate assessment is paramount before administering an opioid analgesic during labor. Opioids can cross the placental barrier and cause central nervous system depression in the fetus, potentially leading to decreased fetal heart rate variability or transient decelerations. Therefore, a baseline and ongoing fetal heart rate monitoring is essential to ensure fetal well-being.
Choice B rationale
Deep tendon reflexes are primarily assessed when administering magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, not typically before opioid analgesics. Magnesium sulfate can cause central nervous system depression and affect neuromuscular transmission, necessitating regular monitoring of deep tendon reflexes to assess for signs of toxicity. Opioids do not directly affect reflex activity in the same manner.
Choice C rationale
Blood glucose levels are not a standard assessment before administering opioid analgesics during labor. Blood glucose monitoring is crucial for clients with diabetes or gestational diabetes, or those receiving intravenous dextrose, but it is not directly related to opioid administration and its immediate effects on the mother or fetus.
Choice D rationale
Blood pressure assessment is crucial before administering an opioid analgesic because these medications can cause maternal hypotension due to their vasodilatory effects. Hypotension can reduce placental perfusion, compromising fetal oxygenation. Establishing a baseline blood pressure and monitoring it closely after administration helps ensure maternal cardiovascular stability and fetal well-being.
Choice E rationale
Pain level assessment is fundamental before administering an opioid analgesic. The primary purpose of administering an opioid is to alleviate labor pain. A thorough assessment of the intensity, location, and character of pain guides the choice, dosage, and timing of the analgesic, ensuring effective pain management and patient comfort while minimizing unnecessary medication.
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