A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make?
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.
Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH.
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The fetal heartbeat is typically detectable by Doppler around 10-12 weeks, not as early as 6 weeks.
Choice B rationale
Monthly prenatal visits up to 28 weeks are standard practice for monitoring pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
A complete blood count is not performed at every prenatal visit but at specific intervals.
Choice D rationale
The blood test for neural tube defects, such as AFP, is usually done around 16-18 weeks, not 32 weeks.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
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