A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who has postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make?
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume.
Hemorrhagic shock will cause an increase in a client's serum pH.
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output.
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring blood pressure every 30 minutes following epidural placement is important but not the initial action. Epidural anesthesia can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, so frequent monitoring is crucial. However, the initial step should focus on preventing hypotension.
Choice B rationale
Administering lactated Ringer's 500 mL bolus via intermittent IV infusion prior to epidural placement helps in maintaining blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension. Preloading with fluids ensures adequate blood volume and reduces the risk of a significant drop in blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min prior to epidural placement is not necessary unless the client has respiratory complications. Oxygen supplementation is used to treat or prevent hypoxia, which is not a primary concern in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the client every hour following epidural placement is important to ensure even distribution of the anesthetic and prevent pressure sores. However, this is not the initial action to take for preventing hypotension.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
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