A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a hospital unit with the assistance of a licensed practical nurse [LPN]. Which aspect of client care would be the most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the LPN?

Administering oral antibiotics to a client with UTI.

Teaching a client with a new order for a renal angiogram.

Evaluate the outflow of peritoneal diasylate.

Assess a client with flank pain due to glomerulonephritis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Administering oral antibiotics to a client with UTI:
Administering oral antibiotics is an appropriate task to delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral antibiotics, and to monitor for common side effects or adverse reactions. Since the task is routine and does not require advanced clinical judgment, it can be delegated to the LPN under the nurse’s supervision.

B) Teaching a client with a new order for a renal angiogram:
Teaching a client about a new diagnostic procedure, such as a renal angiogram, requires advanced knowledge and clinical judgment to explain the procedure, its risks, and the necessary pre- and post-procedure care. This task is best performed by a registered nurse (RN) because it involves providing detailed patient education and addressing the patient’s concerns.

C) Evaluate the outflow of peritoneal dialysate:
Evaluating the outflow of peritoneal dialysate is a more complex task that involves assessing the effectiveness of the dialysis process and identifying any potential complications (e.g., infection, leakage). This task requires clinical expertise in dialysis and the ability to interpret changes in the output. Although LPNs may assist in monitoring the process, it is ultimately the RN’s responsibility to evaluate the outcome, interpret any changes, and intervene if necessary.

D) Assess a client with flank pain due to glomerulonephritis:
Assessment of a client with flank pain related to glomerulonephritis requires a thorough evaluation of the client's condition, including understanding the potential causes of pain and monitoring for complications such as renal failure or infection. This type of assessment requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, making it the responsibility of the RN.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Prednisone:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma. It is appropriate in this case for managing the asthma exacerbation, as steroids help to decrease airway inflammation and improve breathing. There is no immediate concern about prednisone in this client with both asthma and a history of heart failure.

B) Metoprolol:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, typically used for managing heart failure, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, beta-blockers are generally avoided in asthma patients because they can exacerbate bronchospasm. In patients with asthma, beta-blockers can block beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to constriction of the airways and worsening respiratory symptoms.

C) Labetolol:
Labetolol is a beta-blocker with both alpha- and beta-blocking effects, which can help lower blood pressure and manage heart failure. While labetalol can also block beta-2 receptors, it has a relatively lower risk of causing bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta-blockers like metoprolol. However, it still poses some risk to patients with asthma. Given the patient's history of asthma, labetolol may still require caution, but it is generally considered safer than other beta-blockers.

D) Albuterol:
Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to relieve acute asthma symptoms and is commonly prescribed for asthma exacerbations. It works by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles and improved airflow. In this case, albuterol is an appropriate medication for managing asthma exacerbation and should be used to relieve symptoms of shortness of breath and wheezing.

A. The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole) B. Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction C. Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole) D. Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.

B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:

The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.

C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.

D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.

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A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a hospital unit with the assistance of a licensed practical nurse [LPN]. Which aspect of client care would be the most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the LPN?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient asks the nurse what the P Wave indicates on an EKG strip. The nurse informs the patient that the P Wave represents:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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