A nurse is caring for a client that has been recently diagnosed with Guillian-Barre syndrome. What would the nurse consider to be common risk factors associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GB5)? (select all that apply)
Associated with recent vaccination
Associated with tobacco use
Recent surgical experience
Presence of a thymus gland
Associated with exposure to a recent viral infection
Correct Answer : A,C,E
A) Associated with recent vaccination:
Vaccinations, particularly those for influenza and other viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of GBS in some cases. This association is believed to be due to an immune response that may trigger the autoimmune attack on the peripheral nervous system, leading to GBS.
B) Associated with tobacco use:
While smoking has been associated with various health conditions, including respiratory and cardiovascular diseases, there is no established direct link between tobacco use and the development of GBS. The pathophysiology of GBS is more strongly related to infections and certain immune responses rather than lifestyle factors like smoking.
C) Recent surgical experience:
It is believed that the stress from surgery, particularly in the presence of an infection or immune response, may trigger the development of GBS. Infections, especially bacterial infections like those caused by Campylobacter jejuni, which is a common antecedent of GBS, can sometimes occur after surgery.
D) Presence of a thymus gland:
The thymus is involved in the immune system, particularly in the development of T-cells, but there is no direct correlation between the thymus gland and the onset of GBS. GBS is more closely related to infections (viral or bacterial), recent vaccinations, or surgery rather than anatomical features like the thymus.
E) Associated with exposure to a recent viral infection:
Viral infections such as Zika virus, Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus (CMV), influenza, and others can trigger an autoimmune response that leads to the development of GBS. Infections are the most common precipitating factor for GBS, and the immune system’s response to the viral infection may cause the body to mistakenly attack its own peripheral nerves, leading to the symptoms of GBS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Respiratory rate of 8 bpm:
This a sign of respiratory depression, which can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are receiving high-flow oxygen. In COPD patients, particularly those with chronic hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide), the body may become less sensitive to CO2 buildup and more reliant on low oxygen levels to trigger the respiratory drive. If oxygen is administered at high flow rate, it can reduce the stimulus for breathing, leading to hypoventilation or even respiratory arrest.
B) A large barrel chest:
A barrel chest is a common physical finding in patients with chronic COPD due to the hyperinflation of the lungs. This is a result of air trapping, which is a hallmark of COPD. While it indicates the long-term effects of COPD, it does not require immediate intervention. It is a chronic sign and not an acute or urgent concern unless accompanied by other signs of acute respiratory distress.
C) Fine crackles:
Fine crackles (or rales) on auscultation can be indicative of fluid in the lungs and may suggest conditions such as pulmonary edema, heart failure, or pneumonia. While crackles could be concerning, they are not as immediately life-threatening as a respiratory rate of 8 bpm. In a patient with COPD, crackles might indicate worsening of their condition, possibly due to an infection or fluid overload, but the priority would still be to assess the patient's breathing and ventilation status first.
D) The patient assumes the orthopneic position:
The orthopneic position (sitting upright or leaning forward) is a common way for patients with COPD to relieve shortness of breath. It is a compensatory action to help improve lung expansion and facilitate breathing. While it is a sign of respiratory distress, it is not an immediate emergency. Many COPD patients use this position to cope with chronic difficulty breathing.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Peaked T waves:
Peaked T waves are a classic sign of hyperkalemia on an EKG. As potassium levels rise, the T waves become taller, more pointed, and narrow, indicating changes in the heart's electrical conduction. This is one of the earliest and most characteristic EKG changes seen with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can result from conditions such as kidney dysfunction, use of potassium-sparing diuretics, or other electrolyte imbalances.
B) Inverted P waves:
Inverted P waves typically suggest issues such as atrial ischemia or ectopic atrial rhythms but are not a hallmark sign of hyperkalemia. They may also appear with other conditions, like atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, inverted P waves are not typically linked to elevated potassium levels.
C) Widened QRS:
A widened QRS complex can occur in several conditions, including hyperkalemia, but it is generally seen in more severe cases. As potassium levels rise further, the QRS complex may widen due to delayed conduction through the ventricles. Although a widened QRS can indicate hyperkalemia, it is a later sign, and it typically occurs after more specific changes like peaked T waves.
D) Prominent U wave:
Prominent U waves are more often associated with hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. U waves are typically seen after the T wave on the EKG and can be more prominent in conditions of low potassium.
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