A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 30 minutes old in the newborn nursery.
The condition that poses the greatest risk to the newborn is
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
The condition that poses the greatest risk to the newborn is meconium aspiration syndrome due to amniotic fluid.
Rationale for correct answers
Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) occurs when a newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid, leading to airway obstruction, chemical pneumonitis, and surfactant dysfunction. The presence of dark brown-greenish amniotic fluid, along with mild respiratory distress (nasal flaring, increased respiratory rate of 60/min), raises concern for MAS. Close monitoring for worsening respiratory symptoms is essential.
Amniotic fluid contamination with meconium increases the risk of lung inflammation and infection. The newborn’s vigorous condition suggests mild aspiration, but continuous observation is needed.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Jaundice: While term newborns may develop physiological jaundice, there are no indications of hyperbilirubinemia or hemolysis in this case.
- Hypoglycemia: No jitteriness or poor feeding, and birth weight is within normal range; hypoglycemia more commonly affects preterm or low birth weight infants.
- Cold stress: The newborn is under a radiant warmer, and temperature is within normal range (36.5°C).
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Birth weight: No signs of growth restriction or macrosomia-associated complications.
- Acrocyanosis: Normal in newborns due to immature circulation, not an indicator of respiratory compromise.
- Apgar scores: Strong Apgar scores (8 and 9) suggest good adaptation to extrauterine life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mm Hg) and proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 hr) or signs of systemic involvement such as headache and edema. The client’s elevated BP, significant proteinuria, headache, hyperreflexia, and pitting edema strongly indicate preeclampsia. The absence of seizures rules out eclampsia, and the gestational age excludes chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures by stabilizing neuronal excitability and reducing cerebral vasospasm. It also lowers BP by promoting vascular relaxation. External fetal monitoring detects fetal distress from utero-placental insufficiency caused by preeclampsia-related hypertension and endothelial dysfunction.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Blood pressure reflects disease progression and response to antihypertensives. Severe hypertension increases the risk of cerebral hemorrhage and placental abruption. Deep tendon reflexes indicate neurological impairment. Hyperreflexia signals worsening preeclampsia, while absent reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria and systemic symptoms. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia requires a pre-existing hypertensive diagnosis. Eclampsia involves seizures, which the client has not reported.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Ampicillin is not indicated without infection. Rh immune globulin is unnecessary without Rh incompatibility. Anticoagulants are not first-line for preeclampsia.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Temperature is not directly related to preeclampsia. Petechiae are signs of coagulopathy, not primary indicators. Pruritus is irrelevant unless liver dysfunction is suspected.
Take-Home Points
- Preeclampsia involves multisystem dysfunction with endothelial damage.
- Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures but must be monitored for toxicity.
- Differentiation from gestational hypertension is crucial for management.
- Fetal monitoring is key to detecting early signs of compromise.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Accumulation of flatulence can cause abdominal discomfort after a cesarean birth, but it does not directly stimulate uterine contractions leading to afterpains. Afterpains are specifically related to the involution of the uterus, not gastrointestinal motility.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding stimulates the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a powerful uterotonic hormone that causes the uterus to contract to its pre-pregnant size. These contractions are experienced as afterpains, especially in multiparous women whose uterine muscles may have less tone.
Choice C rationale
While some medications administered after birth can have side effects, severe cramps or afterpains are primarily a physiological response to uterine involution and the hormonal changes associated with breastfeeding, rather than a direct adverse effect of medication.
Choice D rationale
Healing of the abdominal incision after a C-section causes incisional pain, which is distinct from the cramping sensation of afterpains. Afterpains are specifically due to uterine contractions, not the healing process of the abdominal wall.
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