A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis.
The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?
Hyperemesis.
Proteinuria.
Hemorrhage.
Hypoxia.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, typically occurring in the first trimester. Amniocentesis is a procedure performed later in pregnancy, so hyperemesis is not a direct complication of the procedure.
Choice B rationale
Proteinuria is the presence of protein in the urine, which can be a sign of preeclampsia during pregnancy. While amniocentesis carries a small risk of complications, proteinuria is not a direct expected complication of the procedure itself.
Choice C rationale
Hemorrhage, or excessive bleeding, is a potential complication of amniocentesis because the procedure involves inserting a needle through the abdominal wall and uterus to withdraw amniotic fluid. This can potentially damage blood vessels, leading to bleeding at the insertion site or internally.
Choice D rationale
Hypoxia is a condition in which the body or a region of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the tissue level. While fetal well-being is monitored during and after amniocentesis, hypoxia is not a direct complication for the mother.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rapid plasma regain is not a standard laboratory test associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum involves significant fluid and electrolyte losses, but rapid plasma regain is not a specific indicator of this condition.
Choice B rationale
A urine culture is used to detect the presence of bacteria in the urine, typically to diagnose a urinary tract infection. While dehydration from hyperemesis gravidarum can increase the risk of a UTI, a urine culture is not a primary anticipated laboratory test for hyperemesis itself.
Choice C rationale
Prothrombin time (PT) is a blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot. It is used to assess coagulation and is not directly related to the metabolic and electrolyte imbalances caused by hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice D rationale
Urine ketones are a byproduct of fat breakdown for energy, which occurs when the body is not getting enough glucose. In hyperemesis gravidarum, persistent vomiting can lead to dehydration and starvation, forcing the body to break down fat for energy, resulting in ketonuria (ketones in the urine).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The 1-hour glucose tolerance test is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation to screen for gestational diabetes. This screening involves measuring the client's blood glucose level one hour after consuming a 50-gram glucose load. A normal result is generally considered to be a blood glucose level below 130-140 mg/dL.
Choice B rationale
Rubella titer is usually assessed early in pregnancy, ideally during the first prenatal visit, to determine the woman's immunity to rubella. If the woman is not immune, vaccination is typically offered postpartum to prevent infection in subsequent pregnancies, as rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious congenital defects.
Choice C rationale
Sexually transmitted disease testing is ideally conducted at the initial prenatal visit to identify and treat any infections early in pregnancy, reducing the risk of transmission to the fetus and other complications. While repeat testing may be indicated based on risk factors, it is not a routine test specifically scheduled for the 24-week appointment for all clients.
Choice D rationale
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is typically performed later in pregnancy, usually between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation, to determine if the woman is colonized with GBS. This is important for intrapartum management to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
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