A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. The woman’s temperature will increase when she is ovulating.This is because ovulation is triggered by a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH), which also causes a slight rise in basal body temperature (BBT).By measuring her BBT every morning before getting out of bed, the woman can detect this subtle change and identify her fertile window.
Choice A is wrong because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the next menstrual period, not seven days after the previous one.
The length of the menstrual cycle can vary from woman to woman, so counting days is not a reliable method of predicting ovulation.
Choice B is wrong because cervical mucus will appear clear, slippery and stretchy when the woman is ovulating, not tacky and cloudy.
This type of mucus helps sperm swim and survive in the reproductive tract.
The woman can check her cervical mucus by wiping with toilet paper or inserting a finger into her vagina.
Choice D is wrong because abdominal massage of the ovaries will not stimulate ovulation, and may even cause harm by injuring the delicate tissues or introducing infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A and it indicates fetal distress because it is a sign oflate deceleration.Late decelerations are due touteroplacental insufficiencyas the result of decreased blood flow and oxygen to the fetus during the uterine contractions.This causeshypoxemiaand can lead to fetal acidosis and neurological damage.
Choice B is wrong because it indicates anormal variabilityin the fetal heart rate, which reflects a healthy autonomic nervous system.A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 beats per minute.
Choice C is wrong because it indicates anearly accelerationin the fetal heart rate, which is a benign finding that may occur with fetal movement or stimulation.
Choice D is wrong because it indicates anearly decelerationin the fetal heart rate, which is a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions.
It does not indicate fetal distress.
Normal ranges for fetal heart rate patterns are:
• Baseline: 120-160 beats per minute
• Variability: 6-25 beats per minute
• Accelerations: at least 15 beats per minute above baseline for at least 15 seconds
• Decelerations: none or early (mirror contractions)
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