A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Urine testing is the best indication of whether my blood sugar is under control. This is wrong because urine testing only reflects the blood sugar level at the time of urination, not the current level.
It also does not detect low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia), which can be dangerous for the mother and the baby.
The best way to monitor blood sugar levels during pregnancy is to use a glucometer, which measures the blood glucose level from a drop of blood.
Choice A is correct because insulin requirements usually increase during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased insulin resistance.
The patient may need to adjust her insulin dose according to her blood glucose levels and dietary intake.
Choice B is correct because the patient needs to eat a balanced diet that provides adequate calories and nutrients for herself and the baby.
She may need to consult a dietitian to plan her meals and snacks according to her blood glucose levels and insulin regimen.
Choice D is correct because regular exercise can help lower blood glucose levels, improve insulin sensitivity, and prevent excessive weight gain during pregnancy.
The patient should consult her healthcare provider before starting or changing her exercise routine.
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