A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Insulin amount needs will continue to increase throughout the second and third trimesters.This is because gestational diabetes is a form of diabetes that develops during pregnancy, usually during the 2nd or 3rd trimester.It is caused by hormonal changes that interfere with the action of insulin, leading to high blood sugar levels.As the pregnancy progresses, the placenta produces more hormones that increase insulin resistance, so the mother needs more insulin to keep her blood sugar within normal range.
Choice A is wrong because insulin amount needs will not remain stable during the third trimester.They will increase as the placenta grows and produces more hormones that cause insulin resistance.
Choice C is wrong because insulin amount needs will not decrease during the third trimester.They will increase as the placenta grows and produces more hormones that cause insulin resistance.
Choice D is wrong because insulin amount needs will not remain stable for the rest of the second and during the third trimesters.They will increase as the pregnancy progresses and the placenta produces more hormones that increase insulin resistance.
Normal ranges for blood sugar during pregnancy are: fasting < 95 mg/dL, 1 hour after meal < 140 mg/dL, 2 hours after meal < 120 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.This is apositive sign of pregnancythat can only be attributed to a fetus.hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta that can be detected in blood or urine tests.
Choice A. Quickening.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of feeling fetal movements in her lower abdomen.This can occur at 16 weeks for second time moms and around 20 weeks for first time moms.However, this sign is not conclusive as other conditions can cause similar sensations.
Choice B. Uterine enlargement.This is aprobable sign of pregnancythat can be observed by the nurse or doctor through palpation.However, this sign does not mean 100% that a baby is growing in the uterus as it can be due to other causes such as fibroids or tumors.
Choice C. Urinary frequency.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of needing to urinate more often than usual.This can be caused by hormonal changes and increased blood volume during pregnancy.However, this sign is not definitive as other conditions such as urinary tract infections or diabetes can also cause frequent urination.
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