A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?
High calcium levels.
Muscle and joint pain.
Heart failure.
Polyphagia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, and Para indicates the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (at least 20 weeks) Since the client has
been pregnant for the fourth time and delivered two full-term newborns (reached viability), she is gravida 4, and since she had one spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks of gestation, she is para 2 (two pregnancies reached viability)
Choice B rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had three pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice, as explained above. Choice D rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had four pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
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