A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who begins to cry and states, "Nobody loves me. I don't deserve to be here!" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Why do you think nobody loves you?
I am sure your parents love you"
"Don't worry, things will get better."
Let's talk about what is upsetting you."
The Correct Answer is D
A) Why do you think nobody loves you?: This response may come across as dismissive or as questioning the client's feelings. It could potentially make the client feel defensive or misunderstood. Instead of questioning the client, it is more important to acknowledge their emotional state and offer support.
B) I am sure your parents love you: While the nurse may be trying to reassure the client, this response can minimize the client’s feelings. It also assumes that the issue is related to the parents, which may not be the case. It’s important to allow the client to express their feelings without prematurely offering reassurance.
C) "Don't worry, things will get better.": While this response is meant to be comforting, it can be seen as invalidating the client’s current emotional experience. It dismisses the client's distress by suggesting that things will get better without addressing the emotions they are expressing in the moment.
D) "Let's talk about what is upsetting you.": This response is the most appropriate because it acknowledges the client’s emotional state and invites them to share their feelings in a non-judgmental way. It opens up a dialogue, allowing the nurse to explore the underlying causes of the client’s distress and provide appropriate support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Olanzapine: Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic that is used to treat conditions such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, but it would not be used to treat severe muscle spasms caused by chlorpromazine. This medication is not appropriate for managing extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like the muscle spasms described in the question.
B) Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for the reversal of benzodiazepine overdoses or excessive sedation, but it is not indicated for managing the side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. The symptoms described in the question are more related to extrapyramidal symptoms rather than benzodiazepine toxicity.
C) Fluphenazine: Fluphenazine is another antipsychotic medication within the same class as chlorpromazine (typical antipsychotics). Administering fluphenazine would not treat the muscle spasms or other side effects caused by chlorpromazine. In fact, it may worsen the symptoms. The focus should be on managing the side effects rather than increasing the antipsychotic dosage.
D) Benztropine: Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as muscle spasms, rigidity, and tremors, which are common side effects of typical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine. This medication would be ordered to relieve the severe neck and back spasms the patient is experiencing as a result of the chlorpromazine.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder that causes repetitive, involuntary movements, such as tongue protrusion or lip smacking. It typically develops after long-term use of antipsychotics like fluphenazine. Since the client reports restlessness shortly after starting the medication, this is unlikely to be tardive dyskinesia, which takes months to years to develop.
B) Pseudoparkinsonism: Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotics that causes symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. While restlessness is not a hallmark symptom of pseudoparkinsonism, it could lead to a lack of coordination or stiffness, but it does not explain the client's feeling of being restless all the time.
C) Akathisia: Akathisia is a common side effect of antipsychotics, including fluphenazine. It is characterized by an intense feeling of restlessness and an inability to sit still, often accompanied by an urge to move. This matches the client's description of being restless and unable to sit still, making akathisia the most likely cause of their symptoms.
D) Acute dystonia: Acute dystonia involves painful, muscle spasms or abnormal postures, such as twisting of the neck or eyes rolling back, which can occur shortly after taking antipsychotics. However, this condition typically causes muscle rigidity or spasms rather than the restlessness that the client describes, making it less likely in this case.
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