A nurse is caring for an antepartum patient whose lab results show a negative rubella titer. What does this data mean?

The nurse should first: C. Administer additional morphine for pain management, followed by B. Reposition the client for comfort.

The client is reporting a pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10, which indicates moderate to severe pain. As per the medication administration record, the client has an order for Morphine 4 mg IV bolus every 6 hours PRN for pain. Since the client is in pain, it would be appropriate to administer the morphine first to manage the pain.

After addressing the client’s pain, the nurse should then reposition the client for comfort. This can help to alleviate any discomfort or pressure points that may be contributing to the client’s pain. It’s also important to ensure the client’s safety and comfort by making sure the call light is within reach.

The options related to restraints (A and D for Response 1, and A, B, C, D for Response 2) are not relevant in this scenario as there is no indication in the provided information that the client is being restrained or that restraints are necessary. The client is drowsy but arouses easily to verbal stimuli and is able to follow simple commands, suggesting that they are not at risk of harming themselves or others, which would necessitate the use of restraints. Therefore, these options can be ruled out.

Choice A rationale

Lidocaine does not primarily serve to relieve pain when administered intravenously. It is primarily used as an antiarrhythmic agent.

Choice B rationale

Lidocaine does not slow intestinal motility. This is not one of its primary actions.

Choice C rationale

Lidocaine does not dissolve blood clots. It is not an anticoagulant.

Choice D rationale

Lidocaine prevents dysrhythmias. It is an antidysrhythmic medication that delays the conduction in the heart and reduces the automaticity of heart tissue.