A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients is most prone to skin infections?
A 60 year old client with gastritis
A 20 year old client with closed tibia fracture
A 55 year old client taking an ACE inhibitor
A 35 year old client receiving chemotherapy
The Correct Answer is D
A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:
A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.
C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["E"]
Explanation
A. Increased pulse rate:
This is a common manifestation of fluid overload. Excess fluid volume can lead to an increase in cardiac output, causing the heart to pump faster and resulting in an increased pulse rate.
B. Decreased blood pressure:
Fluid overload typically leads to increased blood volume, which can initially cause an increase in blood pressure. However, as fluid overload progresses, it can lead to fluid redistribution, venous congestion, and decreased systemic vascular resistance, ultimately resulting in decreased blood pressure.
C. Skeletal muscle weakness:
Skeletal muscle weakness is not a direct manifestation of fluid overload. It is more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia, which can occur as a consequence of fluid shifts but are not specific to fluid overload itself.
D. Warm and pink skin:
Warm and pink skin is not typically associated with fluid overload. Instead, it is more indicative of adequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. In fluid overload, skin changes may include edema, cool and clammy skin due to venous congestion, or signs of skin breakdown in areas of pressure.
E. Distended neck veins:
Distended neck veins, specifically jugular venous distention (JVD), are commonly seen in patients with fluid overload, especially if there is right-sided heart failure or increased central venous pressure. JVD is a result of increased venous return to the heart due to fluid accumulation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Assess the patient’s respiratory rate, rhythm, depth:
This is the correct action to take first. Hypokalemia can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, which can result in respiratory compromise or failure. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth will help determine if there are any signs of respiratory distress or impending respiratory failure.
B. Call the healthcare provider:
While it's important to involve the healthcare provider, especially if there is a significant change in the patient's condition, assessing the patient's immediate respiratory status takes priority to ensure prompt intervention if respiratory distress is present.
C. Document findings and monitor the patient:
Documenting findings and ongoing monitoring are essential steps, but they come after addressing the patient's immediate needs, such as assessing respiratory status in this case.
D. Measure the patient’s pulse and blood pressure:
While vital signs are important, they may not immediately address the potential respiratory compromise associated with hypokalemia-induced muscle weakness. Assessing respiratory status is more directly relevant to the observed change in handgrip strength.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.