A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is postoperative and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. The arteriaI blood gas (ABG) values include:
- pH 7.22
- PaCO2 68 mm Hg
- Base excess -2
- PaO2 78 mm Hg
- Oxygen saturation 80%
- Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L
Which of the following interpretations of the ABG values should the nurse make7
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (<22 mEq/L) due to an excess of acids in the body or a loss of bicarbonate. However, in the given ABG values, the pH is low (7.22), but the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which does not align with metabolic acidosis. Therefore, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation in this case.
B. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) by the lungs, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood and a decrease in pH. In the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis as the primary disturbance. This interpretation is supported by the elevated PaCO2 and the low pH, making it the correct choice based on the given data.
C. Respiratory alkalosis:
Respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation, leading to excessive elimination of CO2 and a decrease in PaCO2 levels. However, in the ABG values presented, the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), which contradicts the expected decrease seen in respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, respiratory alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of the ABG values in this case.
D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH (>7.45) and a high bicarbonate level (>26 mEq/L) due to excessive loss of acids or an increase in bicarbonate levels. However, in the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which is not consistent with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation based on the given data.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin.
Gamma globulin is a blood product that contains antibodies and is sometimes used for post-exposure prophylaxis in certain situations, such as for individuals who are immunocompromised or pregnant and have been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) or measles. However, for a frail, older adult who had chickenpox as a child and has been exposed to varicella again, arranging for gamma globulin may not be necessary if the patient is already immune to chickenpox.
B. Assess frequently for herpes zoster.
Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. While exposure to varicella can increase the risk of developing shingles in individuals who are susceptible, frequent assessment for herpes zoster is not necessary in this case if the patient is known to have had chickenpox in the past.
C. Be aware of the patient's immunity to chickenpox.
This option is the correct choice. Since the patient had chickenpox as a child, they likely have immunity to chickenpox. Being aware of this immunity helps the nurse understand that the patient may not develop chickenpox again even after exposure to varicella.
D. Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine.
Encouraging the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine is unrelated to the immediate concern of exposure to varicella. While pneumonia vaccines are important for older adults, especially those who are frail, the priority in this scenario is to determine the patient's immunity to chickenpox due to prior infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful, warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence
Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness over a localized area, typically over a bony prominence like the sacrum, heel, or elbow. The skin may feel painful, warm, and soft to the touch. Nonblanchable redness means that when pressure is applied to the area, the redness does not fade or blanch (turn white). This stage indicates that tissue damage has occurred, but the skin is still intact.
B. Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising: This description is more indicative of a Stage 2 pressure injury, which involves partial-thickness skin loss with an intact or ruptured blister. The wound bed is usually pink or red, and there is no sloughing or bruising.
C. Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling: This description corresponds to a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no bone, tendon, or muscle exposed. Stage 4 involves extensive tissue loss with exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle. Both stages may include slough (yellow or white tissue) and black eschar (hard, necrotic tissue), along with undermining (tissue destruction under intact skin edges) and tunneling (narrow passageways extending from the wound).
D. Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling: This description also corresponds to a Stage 3 pressure injury, as it involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat. The mention of possible undermining and tunneling further suggests a Stage 3 pressure injury.
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