What would be considered early signs/symptoms of pressure injury (Stage 1)?

Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful,warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence

Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising

Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling

Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful, warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence

Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness over a localized area, typically over a bony prominence like the sacrum, heel, or elbow. The skin may feel painful, warm, and soft to the touch. Nonblanchable redness means that when pressure is applied to the area, the redness does not fade or blanch (turn white). This stage indicates that tissue damage has occurred, but the skin is still intact.

B. Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising: This description is more indicative of a Stage 2 pressure injury, which involves partial-thickness skin loss with an intact or ruptured blister. The wound bed is usually pink or red, and there is no sloughing or bruising.

C. Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling: This description corresponds to a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no bone, tendon, or muscle exposed. Stage 4 involves extensive tissue loss with exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle. Both stages may include slough (yellow or white tissue) and black eschar (hard, necrotic tissue), along with undermining (tissue destruction under intact skin edges) and tunneling (narrow passageways extending from the wound).

D. Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling: This description also corresponds to a Stage 3 pressure injury, as it involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat. The mention of possible undermining and tunneling further suggests a Stage 3 pressure injury.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:

Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.

B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:

A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.

C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:

ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.

D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:

Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.

A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours:

Diarrhea and vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis due to loss of bicarbonate and increased hydrogen ion concentration in the blood. However, the ABG values provided indicate respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2), which is not consistent with metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhea and vomiting. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):

COPD is a respiratory condition characterized by airflow limitation and increased airway resistance. It can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels would be elevated). The ABG values in the scenario show respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2), which is the opposite of what would be expected in COPD. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values provided.

C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation:

Anxiety-induced hyperventilation is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis. During hyperventilation, there is excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels decrease), leading to an increase in pH (alkalosis). The ABG values in the scenario show a high pH (7.48) and low PaCO2 (28 mm Hg), consistent with respiratory alkalosis seen in hyperventilation due to anxiety.

D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a metabolic condition characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis (low pH and low bicarbonate levels). COPD, as mentioned earlier, can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retained carbon dioxide. Neither of these conditions correlates with the ABG values provided, which show respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2). Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.

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What would be considered early signs/symptoms of pressure injury (Stage 1)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients is most prone to skin infections?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a patient: pH 7.48, PaO 98 mm Hg, PaCO 28 mm Hg, and HCO - 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). Which patient condition does the nurse correlate with these results?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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