A nurse is collecting data from a client prior to administering a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for treatment of hypertension. For which of the following findings should the nurse contact the provider?
Heart rate of 66/min
BP of 148/94 mm Hg
Peripheral edema of the ankles
A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL.
The Correct Answer is C
(a) Heart rate of 66/min:
A heart rate of 66/min is within the normal range (60-100 bpm) and does not typically require contacting the provider before administering a calcium channel blocker. CCBs can affect heart rate, but this finding alone is not a contraindication for their use.
(b) BP of 148/94 mm Hg:
A blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is an appropriate indication for the use of calcium channel blockers. This finding supports the use of the medication rather than requiring the provider to be contacted.
(c) Peripheral edema of the ankles:
Peripheral edema is a known side effect of calcium channel blockers. If the client is already experiencing edema, administering the medication could potentially worsen this condition. The nurse should contact the provider to discuss this finding before proceeding with the medication administration.
(d) A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL:
A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2.0 ng/mL). This finding does not necessitate contacting the provider before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not indicate toxicity or a contraindication for CCB use
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Headache:
Headache is not typically a clinical manifestation of an acute myocardial infarction. The more common symptoms are related to chest pain, autonomic responses, and cardiovascular changes.
B. Tachycardia:
Tachycardia, or an increased heart rate, is a common symptom during an acute MI. This occurs as the body attempts to compensate for decreased cardiac output and perfusion.
C. Nausea:
Nausea is a frequent symptom associated with an acute MI. It results from the activation of the autonomic nervous system during the heart attack.
D. Diaphoresis:
Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of an acute MI. It occurs due to the sympathetic nervous system's response to pain and stress from the heart attack.
E. Orthopnea:
Orthopnea, or difficulty breathing when lying down, is more commonly associated with congestive heart failure rather than an acute MI. While shortness of breath can occur during an MI, orthopnea is not a primary manifestation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
(A) Increase the heat in the client’s room: Increasing the heat in the client’s room is not typically recommended for a client experiencing dyspnea. Heat can sometimes make breathing more difficult, and it does not address the underlying cause of the dyspnea.
(B) Perform nasotracheal suctioning for the client: Nasotracheal suctioning can be used to clear the airway in certain situations, but it is not typically the first-line treatment for dyspnea in a client at the end of life. It can be uncomfortable and distressing for the client.
(C) Place the head of the client’s bed flat: Placing the head of the bed flat can actually make breathing more difficult for a client experiencing dyspnea. It is generally more helpful to elevate the head of the bed to facilitate easier breathing.
(D) Administer an opioid narcotic to the client: This is the most appropriate answer. Opioid narcotics can help to relieve dyspnea in clients at the end of life by reducing anxiety, decreasing the sensation of breathlessness, and improving the client’s overall comfort level. The use of opioids in this context should be carefully monitored to manage potential side effects.
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