A nurse is reviewing the ABG values of a client who has chronic bronchitis and reports dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following acid- base imbalances should the nurse suspect?
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
The Correct Answer is C
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale:
A) Metabolic acidosis: This occurs when there is an excess of acid in the body or a loss of bicarbonate, often due to conditions such as renal failure or severe diarrhea. In chronic bronchitis, the primary issue is related to respiratory function rather than metabolic disturbances.
B) Respiratory alkalosis: This condition results from hyperventilation, leading to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. It is unlikely in a client with chronic bronchitis, who typically experiences difficulty in exhaling fully rather than hyperventilating.
C) Respiratory acidosis: In chronic bronchitis, airflow obstruction and reduced gas exchange can lead to carbon dioxide retention, resulting in respiratory acidosis. Symptoms like dyspnea and increased work of breathing support this imbalance, as the body is unable to adequately expel carbon dioxide.
D) Metabolic alkalosis: This imbalance results from excessive bicarbonate or loss of hydrogen ions, often related to prolonged vomiting or diuretics. It is not characteristic of chronic bronchitis, where the primary concern is respiratory function rather than metabolic processes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain radiating to the jaw: This patient should be evaluated first. Chest pain radiating to the jaw can be a sign of a heart attack, which is a life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
B. A patient with venous insufficiency with 2+ pitting edema: While this patient’s condition needs to be addressed, it is not as immediately life-threatening as a potential heart attack. Venous insufficiency and edema can lead to discomfort and complications if left untreated, but these complications are typically not immediate.
C. A patient receiving enoxaparin (Lovenox) for experiencing an MI 3 days ago: This patient is already receiving treatment for their condition. While they should be monitored for side effects of the medication and signs of further cardiac issues, they are not the highest priority based on the information given.
D. A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) with a diminished pulse: While a diminished pulse can indicate poor blood flow, which can lead to complications such as tissue damage and non-healing wounds, it is not as immediately life-threatening as a potential heart attack. This patient should be evaluated, but they are not the highest priority based on the information given.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Aspirin:
Aspirin is the priority medication to administer first. It is crucial for preventing further clot formation in the coronary arteries, as it inhibits platelet aggregation. Administering aspirin early in the treatment of a suspected MI helps reduce the size of the infarction and limits further damage to the heart muscle. Aspirin should be given as soon as a myocardial infarction is suspected, unless contraindicated.
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