A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 12 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Fundus soft, 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.

Fundus firm, 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.

Fundus soft, to the right of the umbilicus.

Fundus firm, at the level of the umbilicus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason:

A soft fundus indicates uterine atony, which is a lack of muscle tone that can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. A soft fundus is an abnormal finding and should be reported to the provider. The fundus should be firm and contracted to prevent bleeding.

Choice B reason:

A fundus that is 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is too high for a client who is 12 hours postpartum. The fundus should descend about 1 centimeter per hour after delivery and should be at the level of the umbilicus at 12 hours postpartum. A high fundus could indicate retained placental fragments or a full bladder, both of which can interfere with uterine contraction and cause bleeding.

Choice C reason:

A fundus that is deviated to the right of the umbilicus is also an abnormal finding for a client who is 12 hours postpartum. A deviated fundus could indicate a full bladder, which can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly. The fundus should be at the midline of the abdomen.

Choice D reason:

A fundus that is firm and at the level of the umbilicus is a normal finding for a client who is 12 hours postpartum. This indicates that the uterus is involuting (returning to its pre-pregnancy size and shape) and that there is no excessive bleeding. The nurse should expect this finding and document it accordingly.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Cerebral palsy is a disorder that affects movement, posture, and muscle tone. It can be caused by brain damage that occurs before, during, or after birth. Premature babies are at a higher risk of developing cerebral palsy because they are more likely to have bleeding in the brain, lack of oxygen to the brain, infections or other complications that can damage the brain.

Choice B reason:

Color blindness is a condition that affects the ability to see colors or differences in colors. It is usually inherited and not related to prematurity. However, some premature babies may develop retinopathy of prematurity, which can affect their vision in other ways.

Choice C reason:

Learning disabilities are problems that affect the ability to learn, read, write, speak or do math. They can be caused by genetic factors, environmental factors or brain injuries.

Premature babies are more likely to have learning disabilities because they are more likely to have brain damage, low birth weight, infections or other complications that can affect their brain development.

Choice D reason:

Retinopathy is a disease that affects the blood vessels in the retina, the light-sensitive layer of tissue at the back of the eye. Retinopathy of prematurity is a condition that occurs when the blood vessels in the retina grow abnormally in premature babies. This can cause bleeding, scarring or detachment of the retina, which can lead to vision loss or blindness.

Choice E reason:

Apnea is a condition that causes pauses in breathing during sleep. Apnea of prematurity is a condition that affects premature babies who have not fully developed their nervous system and respiratory system. This can cause them to stop breathing for more than 20 seconds at a time, which can lower their oxygen levels and heart rate.

A. Uterine atony B. Puerperal infection C. Retained placental fragments D. Thrombophlebitis.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Uterine atony is the failure of the uterus to contract and retract after delivery, which can lead to excessive bleeding and hemorrhage. It is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for up to 80 percent of cases. Risk factors for uterine atony include large or multiple babies, prolonged or rapid labor, overdistended uterus, use of oxytocin or magnesium sulfate during labor, and previous history of uterine atony.

Choice B reason:

Puerperal infection is an infection of the reproductive tract that occurs within six weeks after delivery. It can affect the uterus (endometritis), the bladder (cystitis), the kidneys (pyelonephritis), the breast (mastitis), or the wound (cesarean section or episiotomy).

Symptoms include fever, chills, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, pelvic pain, and wound redness or drainage. Risk factors for puerperal infection include cesarean delivery, prolonged rupture of membranes, prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, retained placental fragments, and poor hygiene.

Choice C reason:

Retained placental fragments are pieces of the placenta that remain in the uterus after delivery. They can cause postpartum hemorrhage, infection, or delayed involution of the uterus. Symptoms include heavy or prolonged bleeding, fever, abdominal pain, and an enlarged uterus. Risk factors for retained placental fragments include placenta previa, placenta accrete, manual removal of the placenta, and incomplete examination of the placenta after delivery.

Choice D reason:

Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation and clotting of a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis. It can cause pain, swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected area. It can also lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot breaks off and travels to the lungs. Risk factors for thrombophlebitis include pregnancy and the postpartum period, cesarean delivery, obesity, smoking, dehydration, immobility, varicose veins, and inherited or acquired clotting disorders.

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A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 12 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

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