A nurse is collecting data from a newborn immediately after delivery by a client who was at 42 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Scant scalp hair
Copious vernix
Increased subcutaneous fat
Dry, cracked skin
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Scant scalp hair is not an expected finding for a newborn who is post-term. Scant scalp hair is more common in preterm infants who have not developed fully.
Choice B reason:
Copious vernix is not an expected finding for a newborn who is post-term. Vernix is a white, cheesy substance that covers the skin of the fetus and protects it from the amniotic fluid. Vernix is usually abundant in preterm infants and decreases as gestation progresses.
Choice C reason:
Increased subcutaneous fat is not an expected finding for a newborn who is post-term. Increased subcutaneous fat is a sign of adequate nutrition and growth, which is more likely in term infants. Post-term infants may have reduced subcutaneous fat due to placental insufficiency and decreased nutrient supply.
Choice D reason:
Dry, cracked skin is an expected finding for a newborn who is post-term. Dry, cracked skin is a result of prolonged exposure to the amniotic fluid, which causes dehydration and desquamation of the skin. Post-term infants may also have meconium staining on their skin due to fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A prior vaginal delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. In fact, it is a positive predictor of success for VBAC, as it indicates that the woman has a proven pelvis and can tolerate labor.
Choice B reason:
The gestation of 42 weeks is not a contraindication for VBAC. However, it is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth while awaiting spontaneous labor, which should be balanced against the risks of induction of labor or elective repeat cesarean.
Choice C reason:
Maternal obesity is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of maternal and neonatal complications. The decision to attempt VBAC in obese women should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.
Choice D reason:
One prior cesarean delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. Most women who have had one prior lower segment cesarean delivery are eligible for VBAC, as the risk of uterine rupture is low (0.5%) and the success rate is high (72-75%).
Choice E reason:
A macrosomic fetus is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of shoulder dystocia and birth trauma. The decision to attempt VBAC in women with suspected macrosomia should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering methylergometrine to the client is not the first action the nurse should take. Methylergometrine is a medication that stimulates uterine contractions and can help reduce postpartum bleeding. However, it can also cause hypertension and should be used with caution in clients with high blood pressure. Furthermore, the nurse should first identify and address the cause of the boggy and deviated fundus before giving any medication.
Choice B reason:
Assisting the client to void is the first action the nurse should take. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly, leading to uterine atony and bleeding.
The nurse should help the client empty her bladder by encouraging her to use the bathroom, providing privacy, running water, or using a bedpan. This can help the uterus return to its normal position and tone.
Choice C reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first action the nurse should take. A urinary catheter can be used to drain the bladder if the client is unable to void or has a large amount of residual urine. However, it can also increase the risk of infection and trauma to the urethra
and bladder. The nurse should first try noninvasive methods to help the client void, such as those mentioned in choice B.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining a stat hemoglobin level is not the first action the nurse should take. A hemoglobin level can indicate the extent of blood loss and the need for transfusion or other interventions. However, it is not a priority over restoring uterine tone and preventing further bleeding. The nurse should first assist the client to void and then massage the fundus if it remains boggy.
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